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Isa_Almisry
Guest
Originally Posted by Isa Almisry
Rome did not take part in Constantinople (actually NO ONE from the West did). On an erstwhile forum the claim was repeated over and over that Rome did not accept it until Chalcedon. Mute point, it was already an Ecumenical Council.
The Nicene Creed as redacted by Constantinople was already circulating. No one waited on the Pope of Rome.That doesn’t make sense. If no one from the West was in attendance,then obviously it was not ecumenical,but regional. It was not an ecumenical council until Rome accepted it’s creed and doctrines as having universal application. Councils didn’t get to decide for themselves if they were ecumenical,and neither did the secular powers that sponsored them. If that were the case,then any of those large heretical councils in the East could have been considered ecumenical. The deciding factor was the approval of the pope.
You’re going to have trouble with your theory explaining the many councils Rome accepted and then rejected (Constantinople V, whichever one you accept, Siena, etc.).
Yes, the heretical councils of the East. As if the West didn’t have them. I’m afraid that many like to play this leit motif (Fr. Ryland comes to mind) of the East mired in heresies, in desparate need of Rome to bail them out. It would be soooo much easier to explain the papacy if that were the case. Pelaginism comes to mind: Pelagius came from the West, and he was explicitly sent back to the West by the Patriarch of Jerusalem so the Westerners could get their house in order. And the West had to force Pope Zosimos to condemn Pelagius.
Pope Vigilius had to be literally dragged from the altar and brought East for the Fifth Ecumenical Council, and although in town for the occasion, he refused to have anything to do with it. But the Church went on, and did not wait for him. Eventually, he got on board with the Church’s fait accompoli.
Another problem with your characterization: the Sixth Council. It was called as a local council, but declared itself Ecumenical in its first session, and was immediately accepted as such (except by the Maronites), including its anathematizing of Pope Honorius of Rome.
The Cappadocian Fathers of the Second Council expounded on the Essence/Energies of God. In this they relied on St. Clement, etc. going back to the Apostles. St. Maximus stated the same, as did St. Gregory.
I was referring to their other writing, of which the Creed is the distinllation.They did not expound anything on the essence and energies that would have precluded the hypostatic procession of the Spirit from the Son. They did not deal with that matter at the Council.
Not deal with it? Yes, they did:
τὸ ἐκ τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκπορευόμενον Who proceeds from the Father.
Canon I
The profession of faith of the holy fathers who gathered in Nicaea in Bithynia is not to be abrogated, but it is to remain in force. Every heresy is to be anathematised and in particular that of the Eunomians or Anomoeans, that of the Arians or Eudoxians, that of the Semi-Arians or Pneumatomachi, that of the Sabellians that of the Marcellians, that of the Photinians and that of the Apollinarians.
So Rome accepted Constantinople I and not Constantinople V (the series of Pan-Orthodox Councils that stated St. Gregory’s views)? Rome’s problem.
And that is her problem.It isn’t Rome’s problem because his views were not accepted.
But then, we are told, Rome has approved him on the calendar, and of him as a saint. So I guess it’s your problem.
Are you going to kiss the Quran out of respect for the muslims?He is a saint primarily out of respect for the Greek Catholics.
Your last quote is exactly why I’m answering here. It seems your “Greek Catholics” are tolerated at best.