Unity of languages

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Well we are back to the original question here: how come languages formed so much wide spread unity? It seems improbable that this should naturally happen. But it did. However, saying we know the language of an unknown language by a previous language is making a huge assumptions. I am very suspicious that many “experts” get over excited about deciphering something and that they make unfounded assumptions. Is there a writing that says that Theos is derived from Deva?

However, has anyone seen the movie The Imitation Game? It is based on the person who tried to make a machine to decipher all German codes. However, is this philosophically possible?
 
Well we are back to the original question here: how come languages formed so much wide spread unity?
Because many languages are derived or influence each other. Words created in one language may be used (though in a slightly different way) in others.
It seems improbable that this should naturally happen. But it did.
Is it unnatural for someone to travel and speak to someone? That influences language. Is it unnatural for a child to use a word in a slightly different usage than their parent, or for a word to be repurposed, spelled differently, or pronounced differently than someone that used the word before? Do you see events such as these as improbable?
However, has anyone seen the movie The Imitation Game? It is based on the person who tried to make a machine to decipher all German codes. However, is this philosophically possible?
I’ve never seen the movie but I know who Alan Turing is and about his deciphering of the Enigma machine. I don’t think that reverse engineering a mechanical device or cryptanalysis is analogous to interpreting a natural language. It is possible to decrypt an encrypted message without understanding it.
 
“It is possible to decrypt an encrypted message without understanding it.”

How could a machine be able to tell what the brains of the enemy chose as the code for a system?

Thanks for your comments
 
“It is possible to decrypt an encrypted message without understanding it.”

How could a machine be able to tell what the brains of the enemy chose as the code for a system?
Knowing the code for deciphering an encrypted message doesn’t necessarily involve knowing something at the level of someone’s brain. First keep in mind that an Enigma machine had already been captured and reverse engineered. How the process worked was understood. Figuring out what combination of those disc that had been used to encrypt the message (encryption key) was the problem at hand. Turing helped to partially automate figuring out what was used.

Decryption of a message is a matter of finding the mapping function between the transmitted form of a message and the intended message. Let’s say that I associate every letter in a language with a number. I write out a sentence that I want to communicate and then translate it into the associated numbers (ex: lets say that ‘A’ is assigned to 65 and ‘B’ is assigned to 66 and so on. After translating the symbols to numbers I run them all through an equation to change them. The end result is the encrypted message.

Now let’s say that you know the reversal of the equation and parameters used to encrypt the original message. You apply that equation and the end result is the unencrypted message. Now let’s say the original message was written Spanish and that you don’t know Spanish. The decryption of the encrypted message didn’t require that you know Spanish. The interpretation of the unencrypted message does require an understanding of Spanish. Without being able to understand Spanish you could decrypt the message without understanding it. As I said before “It’s possible to decrypt a message without understanding it.”
 
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