I would also like to point out that when the Greek Church fathers talked about the Bishop of Rome they used the word “υπεροχή” which is the word for Primacy and Supremacy. This could point out the fact that there was actually no difference in the meaning of the word.
Just Saying
And in all honesty having Primacy over or supermacy over what’s really the big difference in the word?
I mean they are saying they accept St Peter as having Primacy which states in the dictionary as being primary or an authority of church’s.
Now Supremacy is the state of authority. More or less its having authority over those who do have a certain authority or power.
I mean it does not make sense to me how they can say they agree with one but not the other.
You either accept Primacy and Peter as having authority and agree that God gave him a special authority over the others by giving him the keys to the kingdom.
Or you deny that by God giving him the keys to the kingdom to bind and loose on earth as in heaven is a lie.
I mean I do not claim to be the sharpest knife in the drawer here but does common sense not have to play into this.
God said to Peter what you bind on earth is bound in heaven and vice versa.
Now later God gives the Apostles the power to bind and loose sin. There is a complete difference here.
The Apostles bind and loose sin through the name of Jesus we all agree on this, as the Priests do today. But any Priest, Bishop or Pope even can forgive sins in the name of Jesus.
But where can any other Apostle Priest Bishop bind and loose anything on his own like he can sin? Why is it ONLY the Pope can do so on his own if he chooses.
Where in the RCC has ever a Bishop ever trumped Peter. Or a Pope?
I understand you can say I am not RC. But ST Peter and the Apostles had to have been. I mean we have proof that all the Apostles belonged to the same word, faith, etc. And St Peter was head of the Roman Church.
But St Peter can bind and loose anything. Why did Jesus not give them the same authority?