Universal Jursidiction

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The question is should belief in them be an article of faith? Is belief in them necessary to the Gospel? I’m not convinced that requiring belief simply to streamline things is a good reason, if it isn’t specific to the Gospel.

Jon
Here’s my question,

Since I brought up Iconoclasm (as Nicaea II was fresh on my mined), are the veneration of images more specific to the Gospel in your opinion than the the Immaculate Conception and the Bodily Assumption of Mary?

Also, do Catholic or Orthodox Theologians even grade things on how specific they are to the Gospel or not, or is this a Lutheran thing? Or more broadly, a Protestant thing?

Thanks.
 
I guess I was responding to what I thought was a criticism of the anathemas and the beliefs being later in history–whereas Nicaea II is closer to the 2nd Millennium. I didn’t mean to imply that Jon thought anathemas were foreign to the first millennium.

But now that I’m at it, I think Jon clarified a bit so I’ll respond to that…
I would say it doesn’t have much to do with when the anathema took place in history, but rather, what the topic or subject of the anathema happens to be. In terms of iconoclasm vs. the immaculate conception or the assumption, I would say the heresy of iconoclasm would be more central to its effects on Christian truth. Touching on what Jon said as it relates to the doctrine’s importance to the gospel, forbidding images of Christ could be seen as an attack on the incarnational reality of the Gospel. That is, to deny an image of Christ is to deny that God became flesh. This would be more injurious to the Gospel than denying that Mary was conceived without original sin.
 
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JonNC:
Quote:

Originally Posted by Randy Carson

Was the Immaculate Conception foreign to the first millenium church?

How about the Assumption?

Thanks in advance.

In terms of having anathemas attached to them, binding the conscience of the believer, they were foreign to the first millennium.

Jon
If the Church is in the business of saving souls, and a particular belief would be beneficial to one’s salvation, the Church is compelled to emphatically (even under the threat of anathema) proclaim the truth.
  1. If anyone does not confess that Emmanuel is God in truth, and therefore that the holy virgin is the mother of God (for she bore in a fleshly way the Word of God become flesh, let him be anathema…#3 Ephesus 431
Why would this fact be so important to the council? I would say that it is because belief in this dogma is beneficial to one’s salvation.

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I would say it doesn’t have much to do with when the anathema took place in history, but rather, what the topic or subject of the anathema happens to be. In terms of iconoclasm vs. the immaculate conception or the assumption, I would say the heresy of iconoclasm would be more central to its effects on Christian truth. Touching on what Jon said as it relates to the doctrine’s importance to the gospel, forbidding images of Christ could be seen as an attack on the incarnational reality of the Gospel. That is, to deny an image of Christ is to deny that God became flesh. This would be more injurious to the Gospel than denying that Mary was conceived without original sin.
I don’t deny that Iconoclasm is problematic…

But one could make an argument that denial of the Bodily Assumption of Mary could be seen as an attack on the “anticipation of the resurrection of other Christians” (CCC Par. 966), since the two are connected?

And couldn’t one argue that the denial of the Immaculate Conception could be seen as an attack on

a) Original Sin

b) The sinlessness of the Holy Theotokos

c) That Christ was without sin

???
 
I don’t deny that Iconoclasm is problematic…

But one could make an argument that denial of the Bodily Assumption of Mary could be seen as an attack on the “anticipation of the resurrection of other Christians” (CCC Par. 966), since the two are connected?
You could, but I don’t believe it would hold up under scrutiny. While Christ promises that all believers will be resurrected on the Last Day, He does not state that one in particular would rise before then. So if Mary didn’t, it doesn’t contradict His promise. Secondly, we already have proof that we will rise again - the resurrection of Christ. It is to that which the apostles point to in order to vouchsafe our resurrection.
And couldn’t one argue that the denial of the Immaculate Conception could be seen as an attack on
a) Original Sin
b) The sinlessness of the Holy Theotokos
c) That Christ was without sin
How would it be an attack on original sin, since to say that Mary was conceived with original sin would only affirm that original sin is a reality? That Christ was without sin is affirmed by the apostles and by His obedience to the will of the Father, as well as by His resurrection - since Christ didn’t sin, death had no hold over Him, etc. Christ doesn’t need another to be sinless in order to be sinless Himself.
 
You could, but I don’t believe it would hold up under scrutiny. While Christ promises that all believers will be resurrected on the Last Day, He does not state that one in particular would rise before then. So if Mary didn’t, it doesn’t contradict His promise. Secondly, we already have proof that we will rise again - the resurrection of Christ. It is to that which the apostles point to in order to vouchsafe our resurrection.

How would it be an attack on original sin, since to say that Mary was conceived with original sin would only affirm that original sin is a reality? That Christ was without sin is affirmed by the apostles and by His obedience to the will of the Father, as well as by His resurrection - since Christ didn’t sin, death had no hold over Him, etc. Christ doesn’t need another to be sinless in order to be sinless Himself.
if you believe original sin is transmitted from Adam and Eve through the parents, your last statement is problematic.
 
You could, but I don’t believe it would hold up under scrutiny. While Christ promises that all believers will be resurrected on the Last Day, He does not state that one in particular would rise before then. So if Mary didn’t, it doesn’t contradict His promise. Secondly, we already have proof that we will rise again - the resurrection of Christ. It is to that which the apostles point to in order to vouchsafe our resurrection.

How would it be an attack on original sin, since to say that Mary was conceived with original sin would only affirm that original sin is a reality? That Christ was without sin is affirmed by the apostles and by His obedience to the will of the Father, as well as by His resurrection - since Christ didn’t sin, death had no hold over Him, etc. Christ doesn’t need another to be sinless in order to be sinless Himself.
Rather than argue all these points, I’ll just respond by saying that the Iconoclasts didn’t deny the “incarnational reality of the Gospel” (but if they did, neither would that hold up under scrutiny), and they could find the truth regarding the Incarnation in the Sacred Scriptures; and there is no evidence that I am aware of that the Apostles ever pointed to the veneration of images in order to defend the “incarnational reality of the Gospel”. I was just trying to show that it seemed to me that you weren’t being consistent in your criticism of the attaching of anathemas to the Marian Dogmas in question. On the one hand you seem critical of the attaching of anathemas to the denial of Marian Dogmas, but aren’t equally critical of the attaching of the anathemas to Iconoclasm.
 
if you believe original sin is transmitted from Adam and Eve through the parents, your last statement is problematic.
It would only be problematic if Jesus were not conceived by the the power of the Holy Spirit and was not the second person of the Holy Trinity.
 
Per Crucem:
Quote:

Originally Posted by concretecamper

if you believe original sin is transmitted from Adam and Eve through the parents, your last statement is problematic.

It would only be problematic if Jesus were not conceived by the the power of the Holy Spirit and was not the second person of the Holy Trinity.
Mary is the Mother of God. See my earlier post regarding #3 Ephesus. #3 Ephesus and your reasoning, I would argue, does not jive.

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Rather than argue all these points, I’ll just respond by saying that the Iconoclasts didn’t deny the “incarnational reality of the Gospel” (but if they did, neither would that hold up under scrutiny), and they could find the truth regarding the Incarnation in the Sacred Scriptures; and there is no evidence that the Apostles ever pointed to the veneration of images in order to defend the “incarnational reality of the Gospel”. I was just trying to show that it seemed to me that you weren’t being consistent in your criticism of the attaching of Anathemas to the Marian Dogmas in question.
Not really, because one has to remember what the iconoclasts were saying in regards to having images of Christ. Christians which use imagery heavily, such as Catholics, Orthodox, Lutherans, etc. do not say that having images is mandatory, or that they must be venerated. But the iconoclasts were saying that it was forbidden to have them in any sense whatsoever. The denial of this was seen as a direct attack on the incarnation. It is to this that the council itself pointed to in its condemnation of iconoclasm:

“… we declare that we defend free from any innovations all the written and unwritten ecclesiastical traditions that have been entrusted to us. One of these is the production of representational art; this is quite in harmony with the history of the spread of the gospel, as it provides confirmation that the becoming man of the Word of God was real and not just imaginary, and as it brings us a similar benefit. For, things that mutually illustrate one another undoubtedly possess one another’s message. … we decree with full precision and care that, like the figure of the honoured and life-giving cross, the revered and holy images, whether painted or made of mosaic or of other suitable material, are to be exposed in the holy churches of God, on sacred instruments and vestments, on walls and panels, in houses and by public ways; these are the images of our Lord, God and saviour, Jesus Christ.”

While the iconoclasts did believe in the incarnation, their theology betrayed a pseudo-Islamic view of God. If you look at later iconoclastic movements, like the more extreme Reformed churches, you will also notice subtle (and not so subtle) Christological errors.

You’re right that the apostles do not point to images, but I don’t recall saying that they had to? The relationship between images and the Gospel is implicit. You could say the same about the immaculate conception and the assumption, but what I disputed is that the IC and the assumption have implicit relationships to the Gospel.
 
Mary is the Mother of God. See my earlier post regarding #3 Ephesus. #3 Ephesus and your reasoning, I would argue, does not jive.

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Yes, she is, but she is not the reason He was free from original sin. That would be owed to the fact that He was the GOD-man.

Do you believe that Mary was free from original sin because her parents were?
 
Not really, because one has to remember what the iconoclasts were saying in regards to having images of Christ. Christians which use imagery heavily, such as Catholics, Orthodox, Lutherans, etc. do not say that having images is mandatory, or that they must be venerated. But the iconoclasts were saying that it was forbidden to have them in any sense whatsoever. The denial of this was seen as a direct attack on the incarnation. It is to this that the council itself pointed to in its condemnation of iconoclasm:

“… we declare that we defend free from any innovations all the written and unwritten ecclesiastical traditions that have been entrusted to us. One of these is the production of representational art; this is quite in harmony with the history of the spread of the gospel, as it provides confirmation that the becoming man of the Word of God was real and not just imaginary, and as it brings us a similar benefit. For, things that mutually illustrate one another undoubtedly possess one another’s message. … we decree with full precision and care that, like the figure of the honoured and life-giving cross, the revered and holy images, whether painted or made of mosaic or of other suitable material, are to be exposed in the holy churches of God, on sacred instruments and vestments, on walls and panels, in houses and by public ways; these are the images of our Lord, God and saviour, Jesus Christ.”

While the iconoclasts did believe in the incarnation, their theology betrayed a pseudo-Islamic view of God. If you look at later iconoclastic movements, like the more extreme Reformed churches, you will also notice subtle (and not so subtle) Christological errors.

You’re right that the apostles do not point to images, but I don’t recall saying that they had to? The relationship between images and the Gospel is implicit. You could say the same about the immaculate conception and the assumption, but what I disputed is that the IC and the assumption have implicit relationships to the Gospel.
Let me try to simplify…

You were saying that the things I brought up (Resurrection of Christians, etc.) could be defended without attaching anathemas to denial of Marian Dogmas. I agree.

Likewise, the Incarnation of Christ could be defended without attaching anathemas to Iconoclasm. I agree.

I also agree with the decision to attach anathemas were they were attached by the Catholic Church.

I think I am being consistent. I was pointing out that I don’t believe you were… If you don’t agree, then so be it.🤷
 
Lutheran and Luther’s hermeneutics don’t work that way - Luther would constantly point to the Gospel to directly hear God’s proclamation of salvation.
Gospel passages can be ambiguous on issues. Take John 6 for an example. Each person with no bias can give you many different interpretations. So you are incorrect in stating Luther merely pointed to Gospels/Scripture. Luther also gave an interpretation WHICH people who followed him accepted.

There was no logical basis for Luther to think he had the right interpretation and certainly no basis for the faithful to think they had it either unless they already had become Protestant by faith (in which case one only has circular reasoning and not reason for assent i.e. I am Protestant because I am Protestant).
For polemics, obviously, Luther engaged in a lot of interpretation but if you read our Confessions, you can see why we can say they reflect Scripture.

Frankly, the comparison of Luther to an unruly schoolboy discounts what was going on in the church - perhaps we Lutherans have made all sorts of mistakes, but our actions were in reaction to what was going on. Regardless of Luther’s take, it would be the rarest of persons who crosses the leadership of the most powerful institution in the world for their own idle amusement.
I think you are mistaking “why” Luther did what he did with “does he have the authority”. My point was that we will grant that Luther had reasons to revolt. Perhaps to make it more interesting, let us say that the Pope at the time had personally gone and killed Luther’s parents and other immediate family.

But all of that misses the point. Luther does not have any authority to rebel against the teaching authority of the Church. Luther was not even someone with the teaching authority a Bishop. Luther was just a priest. So yes, the comparison is indeed valid. Luther was a freshman who rebelled against his Professors and University. Then he went on to establish his own University.

Do you think that is honestly reasonable? I know you are a Lutheran but seriously give it a thought. From where I stand, to follow Luther is the worst thing you can do from the perspective of reason. To do so, it seems like you need to put more faith in Luther’s authority and his interpretations as to why the Catholic Church has erred rather than in Christ himself.

The only other thing that a Protestant can say is “I read Luther and his quotes from Scripture seem to agree with what he is saying”. Well, as if that is any surprise. Scripture, just like any other written text, can be quoted to support the weirdest ideas as most Protestants themselves are discovering today from their own brethren as they break away. So what Luther and his followers should have done is stay inside the Church.

You also did not answer my logical objections against breaking away from the Church in my previous post. Those are important for you to convince me that the break was logically justified.
 
Yes, she is, but she is not the reason He was free from original sin. That would be owed to the fact that He was the GOD-man.

Do you believe that Mary was free from original sin because her parents were?
I didn’t say she was the reason. Said another way…I do not believe Christ could be conceived and born of a sinful person. I would say to believe so is beneath the dignity owed to God.

As far as St Ann and Sf Joachim goes, I hope to find out later.
 
Yes, she is, but she is not the reason He was free from original sin. That would be owed to the fact that He was the GOD-man.

Do you believe that Mary was free from original sin because her parents were?
I do not know how you got in to this topic but don’t you think it belongs in another thread? (you might find tons that already have discussed this) 🙂
 
You are still short circuiting the discussion because you keep stating that “It wasn’t there before, so it cannot be there now”.
  1. The Orthodox have been in error before and was corrected by admittance of Orthodox themselves. So you have to show what certainty you or any Orthodox have that they are correct on the judgement of this matter. Can you present that to us?
  2. The fact that the Papal office did not exist specifically as defined before is not an issue. That is the whole point of defining it. The fact that Patriarchate of Constantinople did not exist from the very beginning with the same jurisdiction is again not an issue for it to be given some jurisdiction later.
  3. If the Scriptural passages cited in favor of the Papacy and the corresponding interpretation of them is correct, then it also means that the Papacy was always present in revelation but had not been explicitly pronounced. So the only logical way to OBJECT is if you can show
    a) The Papacy contradicts a prior TEACHING
    b) The Papacy contradicts evidence (a case where Rome was in error and other patriarchates were the one to bail Rome out)
So can you please reconsider what I am asking of you and present your objection with more detail so that my concerns above are satisfied?
I am not trying to sabotage the discussion, honestly.

I appreciate your engagement, but I am still puzzled.

Number 3 is also a key point. The East rejects the Latin interpretation of those scriptures your church uses to support the Papal Claim. From the Orthodox POV:
  1. Apostolic Tradition refutes Papal claims
  2. Scripture does not support Papal claims
What else is there? From where we sit, The Papal Claims are a complete innovation.
The burden of proof is on the innovator as to why what they are doing is:
1)legitimate
2)necessary
 
Gospel passages can be ambiguous on issues.
In my opinion, the ambiguity of the Gospel is vastly overstated - I’ll listen to what God tells me foremost, then the if I have difficulty, then I’ll trust the church over myself.

Frankly, “instructions on interpreting the Bible” seemingly has become a way for those with devious hearts to pry away people from the faith in these modern times. I trust myself the least in this when I encounter difficulty.
I think you are mistaking “why” Luther did what he did with “does he have the authority”.
Perhaps Luther didn’t have the authority, but all Christians have the responsibility to point to the Cross when a new gospel is being put in it’s place - in this case a gospel of paid-for indulgences rather than Grace through Faith.
Do you think that is honestly reasonable? I know you are a Lutheran but seriously give it a thought.
500 years ago, not only was it reasonable, but a necessity.

It’s us poor Lutherans now that have to ask the question. For now that the Catholic church again preaches a good Gospel, the decision is much harder.
So what Luther and his followers should have done is stay inside the Church.
We are still inside the church, though perhaps you may not agree to such a statement.
 
I am not trying to sabotage the discussion, honestly.

I appreciate your engagement, but I am still puzzled.

Number 3 is also a key point. The East rejects the Latin interpretation of those scriptures your church uses to support the Papal Claim. From the Orthodox POV:
  1. Apostolic Tradition refutes Papal claims
  2. Scripture does not support Papal claims
What else is there? From where we sit, The Papal Claims are a complete innovation.
The burden of proof is on the innovator as to why what they are doing is:
1)legitimate
2)necessary
I am asking to describe how the Apostolic Tradition refutes Papal claims. Is it that “Doctrine X that existed prior to definition contradicts definition of Papal office”? What doctrine is that?

Because if it is “Canon Law is contradicted” or “there was an absence of such an office”, that is not a refutation.

As for whether Scripture supports the claims, that is a Catch 22 situation. If one accepts the Catholic interpretation of the passages, Scripture supports it. There is no actual way to reject the Catholic interpretation as certainly false. You can at best show an alternate interpretation. So the argument from Scripture on the part of the Orthodox for justification of their rejection cannot apply unless the Roman Catholic one is completely absurd. But as some Protestant theologians will attest, its not far out there at all even though they do not personally like that particular interpretation.

On the perspective of the “innovator”, Rome can always point out many cases where Rome stepped in to correct the Orthodox while the Orthodox have none. That is a problem and does support for the idea that Rome seems to be the superior (just from an observer stand point).
 
In my opinion, the ambiguity of the Gospel is vastly overstated - I’ll listen to what God tells me foremost, then the if I have difficulty, then I’ll trust the church over myself.
But that itself is a faith claim of enormous magnitude. It assumes that God has made some promise to you that he will speak directly to you. That itself is a mini religion right there. Since there is no reason to think that you have received a special revelation where God makes such a promise, why should you yourself believe that?
Frankly, “instructions on interpreting the Bible” seemingly has become a way for those with devious hearts to pry away people from the faith in these modern times. I trust myself the least in this when I encounter difficulty.
The issue is that you are trusting on something that is already devious i.e. the idea that God should guide you. That itself is a faith statement and not something intuitively self-evident or attainable through reason.
Perhaps Luther didn’t have the authority, but all Christians have the responsibility to point to the Cross when a new gospel is being put in it’s place - in this case a gospel of paid-for indulgences rather than Grace through Faith.
As noble sounding as the statement sounds, it is a faith claim. Therefore that claim itself requires authority to pronounce. I do not have that authority, you do not have it and neither did Luther. So what exactly are the Lutherans doing following him?
500 years ago, not only was it reasonable, but a necessity.

It’s us poor Lutherans now that have to ask the question. For now that the Catholic church again preaches a good Gospel, the decision is much harder.
A necessity? How can it be a “necessity” for a student to rebel against the professors and start his own university? If the Professors seemed to be straying, the right thing to do is stay in the Church and object. Not start your own gig.
We are still inside the church, though perhaps you may not agree to such a statement.
You are not completely inside the Church though you are strongly connected to it via baptism.

But what I am asking here is for you to consider what justification your forefathers (or the ones who preached Lutheranism to you) had to leave the Church and follow Luther. You have to admit that there is no real good reason other than a fit of rage or rash decision to leave because of “atrocities”, yes?
 
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