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Mickey
Guest
Has the Roman Catholic Church always consecrated unleavened bread?
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davidv
Guest
Thank you for the question. I checked canon law and was surprised to see that “unleavened” is not specified.
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Mickey
Guest
Interesting. Since most Eastern Catholics and Orthodox use leavened bread, do you think that the Latins also used leavened bread at one time? If so, why did it change?
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James0235
Guest
It is specified in the GIRM:
The bread for celebrating the Eucharist must be made only from wheat, must be recently baked, and, according to the ancient tradition of the Latin Church, must be unleavened.
General Instruction of the Roman Missal 320
James
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Mickey
Guest
What is meant by “ancient tradition”? Has it always been unleavened?
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James0235
Guest
There are varying opinions.
Some hold that East and West both used leavened bread and that the West began using unleavened bread in the 11th century.
Some hold that both leavened and unleavened bread were used in the West from the beginning.
Some hold that the West always used unleavened bread and this was Apostolic in nature.
For our paschal lamb, Christ, has been sacrificed. Therefore let us celebrate the feast, not with the old yeast, the yeast of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
1 Corinthians 5:7-8
And some, including St. Thomas Aquinas, held that both East and West originally used unleavened bread and that the East changed to leavened bread very early on.
God bless,
James
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James0235
Guest
It actually is specified in Canon Law. Just a couple on Canons past what you quoted:
**According to the ancient tradition of the Latin Church, the priest is to use unleavened bread in the eucharistic celebration whenever he offers it.
Code of Canon Law 926**
God bless,
James
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Mickey
Guest
I just found this:
Fr. Joseph Jungman – in his *The Mass of the Roman Rite *-- states that:
"In the West, various ordinances appeared from the ninth century on, all demanding the exclusive use of unleavened bread for the Eucharist. A growing solicitude for the Blessed Sacrament and a desire to employ only the best and whitest bread, along with various scriptural considerations – all favored this development.
“Still, the new custom did not come into exclusive vogue until the middle of the eleventh century. Particularly in Rome it was not universally accepted till after the general infiltration of various usages from the North” Rome itself, conservative as always, did not change to unleavened bread until a few decades after the schism.]
~ Joseph Jungman, The Mass of the Roman Rite, volume II, pages 33-34
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davidv
Guest
Thanks.
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diggerdomer
Guest
The change to unleavened bread occurred in the Middle Ages. It became widespread in the West during the 8th-11th centuries.
I guess people will have different ideas on how old something is for it to be “ancient.”
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Mickey
Guest
Ah yes. I am finding more info:
Fr. Jungman goes on to say that:
“. . . the opinion put forward by J. Mabillon, Dissertatio de pane eucharistia, in his answer to the Jesuit J. Sirmond, Disquisitio de azymo, namely, that in the West it was always the practice to use only unleavened bread, is no longer tenable.”
"Now, the fact that the West changed its practice and began using unleavened bread in the 8th and 9th century – instead of the traditional leavened bread – is confirmed by the research of Fr. William O’Shea, who noted that along with various other innovative practices from Northern Europe, the use of unleavened bread began to infiltrate into the Roman liturgy at the end of the first millennium, because as he put it, “Another change introduced into the Roman Rite in France and Germany at the time * was the use of unleavened bread and of thin white wafers or hosts instead of the loaves of leavened bread used hitherto”
~ Fr. William O’Shea, The Worship of the Church*, page 128
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James0235
Guest
I think it is likely that Rome used both leavened and unleavened bread in the beginning.
Unleavened bread did eventually become the norm. Several scripture passages come to mind that would seem to favor (but not necessarily require) the use of unleavened bread:
In addition to 1 Corinthians that I mentioned already:
For our paschal lamb, Christ, has been sacrificed. Therefore let us celebrate the feast, not with the old yeast, the yeast of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
1 Corinthians 5:7-8
there is also the obvious parallel with the Exodus
That same night they shall eat its roasted flesh with unleavened bread and bitter herbs.
Exodus 12:8
The pashal lamb was eaten with unleavened bread. Christ, our paschal lamb (1 Cor 5) is eaten under the form of unleavened bread.
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Mickey
Guest
Unleavened bread is connected with mourning, something totally inappropriate in connection with the Lord’s Day. The Eucharist is about the Resurrection as much as the Crucifixion, which is why fasting is forbidden on Sundays and liturgies are festive.
Keep your nights of watching in the middle of the days of unleavened bread. And when the Jews are feasting, do you fast and wail over them, because on the day of their feast they crucified Christ; and while they are lamenting and eating unleavened bread in bitterness, do you feast.
-Constitutions of the Holy Apostles, Book 5, Section 3, para. xvii
prosphora.org/page27.html
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Mickey
Guest
Fr Jungman continues:
“The Eucharistic bread has been unleavened in the Latin rite since the 8th century – that is, it is prepared simply from flour and water, without the addition of leaven or yeast. . . . in the first millennium of the Church’s history, both in East and West, the bread normally used for the Eucharist was ordinary ‘daily bread,’ that is, leavened bread, and the Eastern Church uses it still today; for the most part, they strictly forbid the use of unleavened bread. The Latin Church, by contrast, has not considered this question very important.”
~ Dr. Johannes H. Emminghaus, The Eucharist: Essence, Form, Celebration, page 162
“Thus, with the foregoing information in mind, it is clear that the use of leavened bread by the Eastern Churches represents the ancient practice of the undivided Church, while the use of unleavened bread by the Western Church was an innovation introduced near the end of the first millennium.”
“The Eucharistic bread has been unleavened in the Latin rite since the 8th century – that is, it is prepared simply from flour and water, without the addition of leaven or yeast. . . . in the first millennium of the Church’s history, both in East and West, the bread normally used for the Eucharist was ordinary ‘daily bread,’ that is, leavened bread, and the Eastern Church uses it still today; for the most part, they strictly forbid the use of unleavened bread. The Latin Church, by contrast, has not considered this question very important.”
~ Dr. Johannes H. Emminghaus, The Eucharist: Essence, Form, Celebration, page 162
“Thus, with the foregoing information in mind, it is clear that the use of leavened bread by the Eastern Churches represents the ancient practice of the undivided Church, while the use of unleavened bread by the Western Church was an innovation introduced near the end of the first millennium.”
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James0235
Guest
(Edited) Did you ask your question because you wanted an answer? Or did you ask the question as a springboard for an attack on the Liturgical practices of the Catholic Church? Your handy quotes, being a different font than the rest of what you write, suggest that you are copying and pasting. And this suggests that you are trolling.
The Catholic Church holds that both unleavened and leavened bread are appropriate for the Eucharist (with some specifications as to when and where each can be used).
And remember, if you are so concerned with which is better, Jesus himself used unleavened bread at the Last Supper - a Passover Meal.
The arguments that Jesus used unleavened bread at the Last Supper are much more convincing then the arguments that he used unleavened bread. But, ultimately no one knows for sure and it does not much matter.
God bless,
James
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Mickey
Guest
(Edited)
Yes. And I appreciated your (name removed by moderator)ut.
Is this a question or an accusation?
Whenever I copy and paste–from areas that I research—I always try to post my reference. Please do not continue your name calling.
Yes. I was Latin Catholic and Byzantine Catholic at one time. That is why I asked the question. And I am posting the information that I am finding. Do not take it personally if I do not take only your word for it.
Are you sure about that?
I am assuming that you meant “leavened” the second time.
You just said that he used unleavened bread. Make up your mind.
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Mickey
Guest
**According to Orthodox teaching, holy men are called earthly angels or heavenly men, because, being “leavened” by the Holy Spirit, they are no longer common flour or unleavened biscuits that lie on the earth, but they are leavened bread that has risen. According to the Bible, unleavened bread was the bread of slaves while leavened bread was for free men, God’s children. So for that reason the Orthodox Church uses leavened bread at Holy Communion. The process of leavening began on that first Trinity Sunday or Pentecost, when the Holy Spirit descended from heaven onto the apostles. From that day forth this process has continued down to the present day, and it will continue till the end of time when all will be leavened. **
St Nikolai Velimirovic
St Nikolai Velimirovic
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James0235
Guest
(Edited)
Asking a question as a springboard for an attack on Catholic belief and practice is a very common tactic. I don’t frequent the Apologetics forum much. But, years ago, when I was much, much more involved in apologetics it was a tactic very commonly used by Orthodox posters on the forums I frequented at the time.
You asked a question, received responses, and then followed that up with an attack on Catholic Liturgical practices:
Unleavened bread is connected with mourning, something totally inappropriate in connection with the Lord’s Day. The Eucharist is about the Resurrection as much as the Crucifixion, which is why fasting is forbidden on Sundays and liturgies are festive.
This is immaterial to the discussion. And it appears that you only asked the initial question to serve as a springboard for your criticism. I have seen it dozens if not hundreds of times in the past. It is my experience that if this is the case then any discussion is nothing more than a waste of time.
And that is why I was asking if your question is serious or not.
(Edited) I find this very refreshing.
Or at least I wanted to if it hadn’t been for my typo.
I think it is very likely that Jesus used unleavened bread. It is possible that he used leavened bread. There are some pretty good arguments for each case. I happen to find the arguments for the use of unleavened bread a bit more compelling. But, we will not know for sure this side of heaven.
It seems probable that the East used leavened bread from very early on (if not the beginning) The West used both leavened and unleavened bread, but probably primarily leavened bread. And then in the 11th century the West began to use unleavened bread more and more to the near exclusion of leavened bread.
God bless,
James
Asking a question as a springboard for an attack on Catholic belief and practice is a very common tactic. I don’t frequent the Apologetics forum much. But, years ago, when I was much, much more involved in apologetics it was a tactic very commonly used by Orthodox posters on the forums I frequented at the time.
You asked a question, received responses, and then followed that up with an attack on Catholic Liturgical practices:
Unleavened bread is connected with mourning, something totally inappropriate in connection with the Lord’s Day. The Eucharist is about the Resurrection as much as the Crucifixion, which is why fasting is forbidden on Sundays and liturgies are festive.
This is immaterial to the discussion. And it appears that you only asked the initial question to serve as a springboard for your criticism. I have seen it dozens if not hundreds of times in the past. It is my experience that if this is the case then any discussion is nothing more than a waste of time.
And that is why I was asking if your question is serious or not.
(Edited) I find this very refreshing.
I did qualify that with The arguments that Jesus used leavened bread at the Last Supper are much more convincing then the arguments that he used unleavened bread.You just said that he used unleavened bread. Make up your mind.
Or at least I wanted to if it hadn’t been for my typo.
I think it is very likely that Jesus used unleavened bread. It is possible that he used leavened bread. There are some pretty good arguments for each case. I happen to find the arguments for the use of unleavened bread a bit more compelling. But, we will not know for sure this side of heaven.
It seems probable that the East used leavened bread from very early on (if not the beginning) The West used both leavened and unleavened bread, but probably primarily leavened bread. And then in the 11th century the West began to use unleavened bread more and more to the near exclusion of leavened bread.
God bless,
James
M
Mickey
Guest
I am sorry you see it as an attack. I should have done my research before I asked the question.
That is not an attack–I am sorry you see it that way. It is more an affirmation of the Eastern Catholic/Orthodox praxis.
You are very good at accusations. Do you have anything more to add to the discussion?
You are free to bow out.
And I answered you.
Good. (Edited)
Disagree.
I find the opposite.
My research is pointing to leavened bread until at least most of the first millennium. I am curious as to why they changed it. That is the answer I am going to seek.
Why?
Again–thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut. :tiphat:
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Volodymyr
Guest
The use of leaven bread in Western church is seen in ikons of mosaik in churches in Ravenna, Italy dating from 9th century. Many historians (Bolotov and Posnov) believe Western church adopted flat bread offering at same time decided to have entirely monastic unmarried priests. Unmarried men are not so good at making bread - why mostly prosfora (leaven bread for Liturgy) is made by women monks. Flat breads much easier to make - even by males.
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