Use of condoms in marriage

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A student asked if one partner is HIV positive, can a condom be used to protect the other partner? I have heard 2 opposing views about the virus: yes it slips through the condom or no it does not.

Anyway, can you please address this issue? 😦

Thanks,

Shortstop
 
As a practical question, I wonder how many people would risk their lives (and a long, debilitating disease) on a condom.
 
A student asked if one partner is HIV positive, can a condom be used to protect the other partner? I have heard 2 opposing views about the virus: yes it slips through the condom or no it does not.

Anyway, can you please address this issue? 😦

Thanks,

Shortstop
Condoms (for contraceptive purposes or stopping infections) are not allowed under any circumstances. If one out of a husband and wife is HIV positive then the only solution is total abstention.
By the way, the use of the word partner implies either its a heterosexual couple who have sex before marriage or a gay couple. In both cases they should not be having sex at all anyway even without infections.
 
Women are really only fertile a maximum of 6 days a month (and that is really stretching the viable lifetime of both sperm and egg) and yet condoms only have a ā€œsuccessā€ rate as a contraceptive of about 92%. Think about that and do some numbers.

If the woman’s cycle is 28 days and 5 of those are out for menstration, then using NOTHING as one’s contraceptive ought to have a pregnancy chance of about 6 / (28-5) = 26%. Thus, using nothing as a ā€˜contraceptive’ would have about a 74% ā€˜success’ rate. So the condom does NOT contain all semen 92% of the time. The above math suggests that semen leaks in one way or another about 1 out of 3 uses.

Unlike pregnancy, STDs can be transmitted ANYTIME during a woman’s cycle. So condom sex with an infected partner seems to be somewhat more risky than Russian roulette! If you love her, don’t risk her like that.
 
I’m curious about this question too. Another hypothetical scenario is that a married couple where one spouse commits adultery. Divorce of course isn’t accepted…and let’s say the couple wants to work on fixing their marriage…but the adulterous spouse contracted HIV whilst in the extra-marital affair. If they don’t use a condom, the other spouse is sure to eventually get HIV. On the other hand, with the condom, there is a good chance for protection. How could someone say they’re sinning in this case?
 
I’m curious about this question too. Another hypothetical scenario is that a married couple where one spouse commits adultery. Divorce of course isn’t accepted…and let’s say the couple wants to work on fixing their marriage…but the adulterous spouse contracted HIV whilst in the extra-marital affair. If they don’t use a condom, the other spouse is sure to eventually get HIV. On the other hand, with the condom, there is a good chance for protection. How could someone say they’re sinning in this case?
Why don’t you get it?
Condoms are not allowed under any circumstances either for contraceptive purposes or for preventing disease. In the case of disease ABSTENTION is the only way. End of story!
 
I’m curious about this question too. Another hypothetical scenario is that a married couple where one spouse commits adultery. Divorce of course isn’t accepted…and let’s say the couple wants to work on fixing their marriage…but the adulterous spouse contracted HIV whilst in the extra-marital affair. If they don’t use a condom, the other spouse is sure to eventually get HIV. On the other hand, with the condom, there is a good chance for protection. How could someone say they’re sinning in this case?
Perhaps there is a good chance for protection. On the other hand, over time there is also a very good chance of her getting HIV. Again, Russian roulette is NOT a loving game.
 
Why don’t you get it?
Condoms are not allowed under any circumstances either for contraceptive purposes or for preventing disease. In the case of disease ABSTENTION is the only way. End of story!
Why are chemical contraceptives allowed for medical reasons?
 
Contraceptives are only allowed if they are a secondary unintended effect of a medical treatment. So if the spouse with the disease needed a medicine to treat the disease that ALSO had a contraceptive effect, then that could be permissable. However, in the case at hand, the contracteptive is not ā€œtreatingā€ anything.
 
In response to the question of contraceptives in marriage as a form of disease prevention…I agree with the posters here that it is not allowed and probably shouldn’t be. (For many reasons – the ā€œRussian rouletteā€ argument is the one that tends to be most effective when talking to non-Catholics who don’t share our theology of the body.) I think it should be pointed out, though, that the question of contraceptive use with HIV+ couples is under review by the Vatican:

awid.org/eng/Issues-and-Analysis/Library/The-Vatican-and-Condom-Use

This will probably not change anything, but may give us some wonderful pastoral and philosophical clarification of the Church’s instruction.

Also, one other remark: I can think of one other situation in which I believe contraception would be allowed (correct me if I am wrong or let me know if this rings any bells): namely, if a woman is forced into sex slavery, she has the right to protect herself. The reasoning would be that contraception is wrong not just because it closes any arbitrary sex act to the gift of life, but because this gift of life must be seen in the context of a human act of complete self-giving. Since the situation I described is basically rape, there is no self-giving to begin with; it would be obscene and cruel to think of it as such. Thus the question of contraception impeding an act of self-giving is moot, and the use of contraception to protect the woman (and any potential child, although that branch of the argument begins to sound eugenic) from disease is allowed.

I should clarify that this is what I’ve heard…I honestly don’t know if this is correct. Like I said, I’d be curious to hear thoughts. I’d say that it seems completely humane, though it does also offer up some slippery slopes. For instance, since no sexual act outside of marriage can represent a total self-giving anyway (because it has no sacramental validity), is the sin of contraception ā€œmootā€ for all extramarital couples?

My answer would be, well, an extramarital couple has already committed a greater sin by having sex, so it’s not that the evil of contraception becomes moot, it’s just that it’s subsumed under a larger category of sin. Whereby contraceptive use would really only be flagrantly evil, on its own, a) within marriages (which brings us back to the question of infected couples) and b) for its scandalous contribution to a culture of convenient profligacy among the unwed…

Sorry, all I intended to do was post that Vatican link and this turned into a stream of consciousness. haha. Interesting stuff, though, no?

Peace,
+AMDG+
 
Why are chemical contraceptives allowed for medical reasons?
They are allowed when they are used in a treatment of a disease. For example a contraceptive pill or hormonal combination pill might be used to reduce symptoms associated with endometriosis. The effect of contraception is secondary and was not the intent by the woman .
Humana Vitae says

Lawful Therapeutic Means
15. On the other hand, the Church does not consider at all illicit the use of those therapeutic means necessary to cure bodily diseases, even if a foreseeable impediment to procreation should result there from—provided such impediment is not directly intended for any motive whatsoever. (19)
**
 
No, condom use is not permissible even in this instance. Why play Russian roulette with your spouse’s life?
 
A student asked if one partner is HIV positive, can a condom be used to protect the other partner? I have heard 2 opposing views about the virus: yes it slips through the condom or no it does not.

Anyway, can you please address this issue? 😦

Thanks,

Shortstop
In addition to ā€œslipping throughā€ other modes of failure exist to include slipping off (lost while in use) or rupture(tear) . By all measures some failures occur. The exact failure rates are unknown because human error contributes quite abet.

One moral issue is the number of partners in a onetime use the condom is effective (~75%*) however among monogamous partner one time use rates would usually be inappropriate. So partner would have considerably different results
ie at 75% 15 relations will result in an exposure
ie at 92% 50 relations will result in an exposure
  • the 92% rate is really about 75% in which most sperm exposure occurs in to non-fertile woman
hope that helps
 
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