Using God's name in the NT

[Waynec]

I am in a discussion with a JW and she is says that Christians removed God’s name from the NT. They added God’s name in their NT. To my way of think their evidence for doing so is not too convincing. You can find their evidence in their translation of the Bible under A4 in the back of the book.

My question is: Is there any concrete proof that God’s name was used at any time in the NT and if so why did Christians remove it if in fact they did?

Thanks

 

[adf417]

I am in a discussion with a JW and she is says that Christians removed God’s name from the NT. They added God’s name in their NT. To my way of think their evidence for doing so is not too convincing. You can find their evidence in their translation of the Bible under A4 in the back of the book.

My question is: Is there any concrete proof that God’s name was used at any time in the NT and if so why did Christians remove it if in fact they did?

Thanks

There are plenty of good references on this subject that are well thought out and presented on the net but what i like to use to point to when talking to a JW is their own literature.

Post #15 below on an old thread explans…
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=13858407&highlight=Aid+to+bible+understanding#post13858407

Peace!!!

 

[Waynec]

There are plenty of good references on this subject that are well thought out and presented on the net but what i like to use to point to when talking to a JW is their own literature.

Post #15 below on an old thread explans…
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?p=13858407&highlight=Aid+to+bible+understanding#post13858407

Peace!!!

Thanks but it still doesn’t tell me whether God’s name was used in ancient scriptures and was taken out later by translators.

 

[adf417]

Thanks but it still doesn’t tell me whether God’s name was used in ancient scriptures and was taken out later by translators.

Sorry about that Waynec. Maybe this is more helpful and more informative.
lectio.unibe.ch/05_2/troyer_names_of_god.htm

Yes the name was taken out but only because it was wrongly inserted in the 11th or 12th century AD. The link above gives a complete history and progrssion from the time when the pronunciation of the name of God was prohibited to when the Masoretes added the vowels.

Hope this helps,
Peace!!!

 

[Waynec]

Sorry about that Waynec. Maybe this is more helpful and more informative.
lectio.unibe.ch/05_2/troyer_names_of_god.htm

Yes the name was taken out but only because it was wrongly inserted in the 11th or 12th century AD. The link above gives a complete history and progrssion from the time when the pronunciation of the name of God was prohibited to when the Masoretes added the vowels.

Hope this helps,
Peace!!!

This looks great. I book marked it to read later at my leisure. Thanks
this group never fails.
God Bless

 

[IgnatianPhilo]

I am unaware of Jewish writings in Greek at the time of Jesus and since using the Hebrew form of the name of God. I could be wrong on this since I have not read Jewish Greek writings of Josephus, Philo, the Deuterocanon but it seems to me they would use the Greek Theos or Kyrios.

If this is universal in the Jewish writings in Greek then it is not much of a leap to see that the New Testament was written from this perspective. I say it would be on the Jehovah’s witness who believes in this conspiracy to demonstrate the usage of the Tetragrammaton in other Jewish Greek texts around the time of Jesus in order to even have a case.

Such a belief really does put in jeopardy one’s trust in the biblical text mind you. If despite the spread and usage of the Greek new Testament we don’t have a single fragment that uses the term Yahweh, the Jehovah’s witness is committed to a theory which involves collaboration on the part of all different Christians despite their differences to deliberately corrupt the word of God. It is really only a theory that can exist in the mind of someone who thinks that those who transmitted the word of God were not faithful but were instead wicked deceivers trying to con people.

 

[Waynec]

I am unaware of Jewish writings in Greek at the time of Jesus and since using the Hebrew form of the name of God. I could be wrong on this since I have not read Jewish Greek writings of Josephus, Philo, the Deuterocanon but it seems to me they would use the Greek Theos or Kyrios.

If this is universal in the Jewish writings in Greek then it is not much of a leap to see that the New Testament was written from this perspective. I say it would be on the Jehovah’s witness who believes in this conspiracy to demonstrate the usage of the Tetragrammaton in other Jewish Greek texts around the time of Jesus in order to even have a case.

Such a belief really does put in jeopardy one’s trust in the biblical text mind you. If despite the spread and usage of the Greek new Testament we don’t have a single fragment that uses the term Yahweh, the Jehovah’s witness is committed to a theory which involves collaboration on the part of all different Christians despite their differences to deliberately corrupt the word of God. It is really only a theory that can exist in the mind of someone who thinks that those who transmitted the word of God were not faithful but were instead wicked deceivers trying to con people.

In reading their Insights book on the subject they use the word “evidently” a lot which leads me to beleive that they have no real proof that the name of God was used in the NT.

Of course my friend will beleive what the Insights book says along with the NWT
Translation committee.
Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut

 

[adf417]

In reading their Insights book on the subject they use the word “evidently” a lot which leads me to beleive that they have no real proof that the name of God was used in the NT.

Of course my friend will beleive what the Insights book says along with the NWT
Translation committee.
Thanks for your (name removed by moderator)ut

Which is why my first post referenced a quote from their publication “The Aid to Bible Understanding”

Peace!!!

 

[John_Lazarus]

I am unaware of Jewish writings in Greek at the time of Jesus and since using the Hebrew form of the name of God. I could be wrong on this since I have not read Jewish Greek writings of Josephus, Philo, the Deuterocanon but it seems to me they would use the Greek Theos or Kyrios.

If this is universal in the Jewish writings in Greek then it is not much of a leap to see that the New Testament was written from this perspective. I say it would be on the Jehovah’s witness who believes in this conspiracy to demonstrate the usage of the Tetragrammaton in other Jewish Greek texts around the time of Jesus in order to even have a case.

Such a belief really does put in jeopardy one’s trust in the biblical text mind you. If despite the spread and usage of the Greek new Testament we don’t have a single fragment that uses the term Yahweh, the Jehovah’s witness is committed to a theory which involves collaboration on the part of all different Christians despite their differences to deliberately corrupt the word of God. It is really only a theory that can exist in the mind of someone who thinks that those who transmitted the word of God were not faithful but were instead wicked deceivers trying to con people.

And therefore Jesus and His apostles failed in their transmission of the Gospel, but we were all rescued by Charles Taze Russell (or Joseph Smith, depending on your particular flavour of “great apostasy”).

 

[Waynec]

And therefore Jesus and His apostles failed in their transmission of the Gospel, but we were all rescued by Charles Taze Russell (or Joseph Smith, depending on your particular flavour of “great apostasy”).

And Jesus started ruling in 1914 and the Wi8tness were chosen to speak for God in 1918. It makes one wonder