The physical item itself (like a gun) is neither licit nor illicit.
Acts are what we are judging, and we do so by assessing:
- The Intention giving rise to the act;
- The Moral Object (or proximate end) of the act itself;
- The Circumstances incl consequences.
You are ceasing your analysis by considering 50% of item 2.
Tell me this – is a quiet voice in your head telling you that your conclusion does not pass the “sniff test” and must be wrong, but you don’t see how, or do you feel your reasoning all makes sense and your pretty sure you have the right answer?
Ok, lets break it down this way.
We KNOW that using a perforated condom for sperm sample is licit. It looks like this:
- Intent - To collect semen sample
- Moral Object - Using a perforated condom during intercourse
- Consequence - semen sample was collected
All 3 of those things have to be licit in order for the whole act to be licit.
Therefore we can establish that collecting semen sample, in and of itself, is licit. We can also establish that using perforated condom during intercourse, in and of itself, is licit. We can also establish that it is licit for the semen sample to have been collected. All those things are licit, in and of themselves, so when you put them all together to form an act, the act is licit.
We also KNOW that using NFP to avoid pregnancy for just reason is licit. It looks like this:
- Intent - To avoid pregnancy for just reason
- Moral Object - Abstinence during fertile times
- Consequence - Pregnancy was avoided for the just reason
Once again, all 3 of these must be licit for the whole act to be licit.
Therefore, we can establish that avoiding pregnancy for just reason, in and of itself, is licit. We can also establish that abstinence during fertile times, in and of itself, is licit. We can also establish that it is licit for a pregnancy to have been avoided for just cause. All those are licit in and of themselves, so the whole act of using NFP to avoid pregnancy for just reason, is licit.
Now lets change it up a bit for an act that we KNOW is NOT licit. We know that using a condom during intercourse to avoid pregnancy for just reason is not licit. This is what it looks like:
- Intent - To avoid pregnancy for just reason
- Moral Object - Using a condom (not perforated) during intercourse
- Consequence - Pregnancy was avoided for the just reason
Again, all three of these need to be licit in order for the whole act to be licit.
We have already established from the blue, that avoiding pregnancy for just reason, in and of itself, is licit. We have also already established from the blue that it is licit for a pregnancy to have been avoided for just reasons. However, the moral object, using a condom during intercourse, is intrinsically wrong (because frustrates the unitive/procreative aspects of sex). Since one of these 3 things is wrong, the whole act becomes wrong. So that is why having intercourse with a condom to avoid pregnancy for just reason is wrong.
So what does using a perforated condom to avoid pregnancy for just reasons look like? It looks like this:
- Intent - To avoid pregnancy for just reason
- Moral Object - Using a perforated condom during intercourse
- Consequence - Pregnancy was avoided for the just cause
Once again, we’ve already established from the blue that the intent and the consequence both check out. Now we must determine whether the moral object checks out - that is, using a perforated condom during intercourse. But look at the red. We have also already established, back in the red, that the moral object of using a perforated condom during intercourse checks out!
So if we have established that the intent is licit, the moral object is licit, and the consequence is licit, then, as stated earlier, the whole act is licit.
(PS - The red is per the USCCB and other Catholic Theologians. The Church has not officially spoken on the matter either way.)
