C
Colorad007
Guest
This is a bit out of left field, but I wanted a handful of opinions about it. Here’s the situation: I’m a married law student studying abroad this summer in Poland. I am able to receive financial aid to cover the cost of attendance, and I also have unused financial aid (loans) from the past couple of years in the bank. Is it wrong to use those loans to pay for my wife’s plane ticket so that she can come to Poland with me? Each promissory note I’ve signed says that loans can be used for only “educational purposes.” I’ve asked financial aid counsellors at my school what that means, and all have told me that it’s okay to use past loan money for my wife’s ticket and housing. I suppose I just feel weird about using tax-payer money to pay for my wife to come along, but I also wouldn’t go without her, so I’m not sure what to do. I do suffer from scrupulosity, and this may or may not be a result of that. They are loans, after all, that I’ll have to pay back, so I’m not “taking” anything from taxpayers–but I’m still unsure.
Any thoughts?
Any thoughts?