R
Roguish
Guest
Three questions:
First, If one were to say one’s own mass in private, but did not reveal this to anyone, and did not allow anyone to attend, would one technically still be considered guilty of “usurpation of the liturgical function”? The relevant canonical law is 1378, par. 2, sub 2. And furthermore, would one still be excommunicated lata sententia? It seems that this would depend on whether the word “function” in “liturgical function” refers to saying mass for a congregation, or to saying mass per se.
(Note that I’m not asking whether or not the consecration would be valid; that is a different matter that I’m currently not inquiring into.)
Second, if one were to hold (persistently) to beliefs that would likely be considered as incompatible with RCC doctrine in certain details, but did not announce this to anyone, would one technically still be considered guilty of heresy? The relevant canonical law is 1364, par. 1.
Third, if one were to expound certain of such incompatible views to others, but recommend those others to remain obediently within the RCC nevertheless, would one technically still be considered a schismatic?
(Note that I have emphasized the word “technically” three times to indicate that I’m not looking for emotional responses to these questions. I’m inquiring as to what the Church’s legal view would be in these cases.)
First, If one were to say one’s own mass in private, but did not reveal this to anyone, and did not allow anyone to attend, would one technically still be considered guilty of “usurpation of the liturgical function”? The relevant canonical law is 1378, par. 2, sub 2. And furthermore, would one still be excommunicated lata sententia? It seems that this would depend on whether the word “function” in “liturgical function” refers to saying mass for a congregation, or to saying mass per se.
(Note that I’m not asking whether or not the consecration would be valid; that is a different matter that I’m currently not inquiring into.)
Second, if one were to hold (persistently) to beliefs that would likely be considered as incompatible with RCC doctrine in certain details, but did not announce this to anyone, would one technically still be considered guilty of heresy? The relevant canonical law is 1364, par. 1.
Third, if one were to expound certain of such incompatible views to others, but recommend those others to remain obediently within the RCC nevertheless, would one technically still be considered a schismatic?
(Note that I have emphasized the word “technically” three times to indicate that I’m not looking for emotional responses to these questions. I’m inquiring as to what the Church’s legal view would be in these cases.)
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