Valid Absolution formula?

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Rather than the standard “I absolve you…”, the priest directed the prayer to God and said (about me) “I absolve him of his sins in the Name…”. Is this valid? I would think so but am not sure. Thanks.
 
Thank you for the replies. I assumed that it was valid but wanted to see what others thought. This raises another question though, perhaps for another thread. What is our responsibility when a priest takes illicit actions? This priest, while sincere and well intentioned, had me meet him in the rectory rather than a confessional (at least objectively against Canon 964, though it’s possible that he had a reason), did not wear a stole, and did not use the standard “God the Father of mercies” prayer before the absolution formula. I was aware fo all these things and chose not to question or say anything. While I admit to being a scrupulous person, part of me feels like I somehow invalidated the sacrament by not speaking up, even if the formula itself was valid.
 
The lack of the stole is a minor issue; if it was not during the normal confessional time, it’s ok.

The prayer you refer to is not one I recognize.
 
Rather than the standard “I absolve you…”, the priest directed the prayer to God and said (about me) “I absolve him of his sins in the Name…”. Is this valid? I would think so but am not sure. Thanks.

FWIW, the Absolution is in the third person in most Orthodox manuals: "Show him an image of repentance, reconcile and unite him to Your holy Church, and absolve him of his sins."
 
The lack of the stole is a minor issue; if it was not during the normal confessional time, it’s ok.

The prayer you refer to is not one I recognize.
I’m referring to the standard prayer of absolution in the Latin Rite:

“God, the Father of mercies, through the death and resurrection of his Son has reconciled the world to himself and sent the Holy Spirit among us for the forgiveness of sins; through the ministry of the Church may God give you pardon and peace, and I absolve you from your sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Amen.”

BTW, Father Serpa is of the opinion that it is likely not valid and that I should reconfess.
 
Rather than the standard “I absolve you…”, the priest directed the prayer to God and said (about me) “I absolve him of his sins in the Name…”. Is this valid? I would think so but am not sure. Thanks.

FWIW, the Absolution is in the third person in most Orthodox manuals: "Show him
an image of repentance, reconcile and unite him to Your holy Church, and absolve him of his sins."
But don’t the Orthodox also include something along the lines of “You are absolved” or “My child, N. N., may our Lord and God Christ Jesus by the mercy of His love absolve thee from thy sins; and I, His unworthy priest, in virtue of the authority committed to me, absolve thee and declare thee absolved of thy sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Amen.” ?
 
“My child, N. N., may our Lord and God Christ Jesus by the mercy of His love absolve thee from thy sins; and I, His unworthy priest, in virtue of the authority committed to me, absolve thee and declare thee absolved of thy sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Amen.” ?
That’s the typical Byzantine formula, catholic or orthodox. But it is not the only byzantine formula in use.
 
But don’t the Orthodox also include something along the lines of “You are absolved” or “My child, N. N., may our Lord and God Christ Jesus by the mercy of His love absolve thee from thy sins; and I, His unworthy priest, in virtue of the authority committed to me, absolve thee and declare thee absolved of thy sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Amen.” ?

**Some do, some don’t.

Depends on what Willage the priest comes from.**
 
I’m confused. Are you saying that the Orthodox don’t require a prayer of absolution which includes the Trinitarian formula?
 
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