F
Fuerza
Guest
Rather than the standard “I absolve you…”, the priest directed the prayer to God and said (about me) “I absolve him of his sins in the Name…”. Is this valid? I would think so but am not sure. Thanks.
Irregular. Don’t think it’s invalid, but it might be illicit.Does anyone have any idea?
I’m referring to the standard prayer of absolution in the Latin Rite:The lack of the stole is a minor issue; if it was not during the normal confessional time, it’s ok.
The prayer you refer to is not one I recognize.
But don’t the Orthodox also include something along the lines of “You are absolved” or “My child, N. N., may our Lord and God Christ Jesus by the mercy of His love absolve thee from thy sins; and I, His unworthy priest, in virtue of the authority committed to me, absolve thee and declare thee absolved of thy sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Amen.” ?Rather than the standard “I absolve you…”, the priest directed the prayer to God and said (about me) “I absolve him of his sins in the Name…”. Is this valid? I would think so but am not sure. Thanks.
FWIW, the Absolution is in the third person in most Orthodox manuals: "Show him an image of repentance, reconcile and unite him to Your holy Church, and absolve him of his sins."
That’s the typical Byzantine formula, catholic or orthodox. But it is not the only byzantine formula in use.“My child, N. N., may our Lord and God Christ Jesus by the mercy of His love absolve thee from thy sins; and I, His unworthy priest, in virtue of the authority committed to me, absolve thee and declare thee absolved of thy sins in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, Amen.” ?