K
KatieD
Guest
I have been asked a question by a Protestant relative, and I don’t have a good answer - I’m hoping you can help!
We used to have a priest in my parish (I believe he has since left the priesthood) who was a known alcoholic and an active homosexual. My relative has asked why the absolutions granted by this priest during those years would be more valid than an individual earnestly asking the Lord for forgiveness on his own. The way he sees it, this man was very openly committing mortal sin, so how could he absolve others of their sins and administer the sacrament? I tried to explain that no person is perfect and that all of us are sinners, but the question remains - how can someone so publicly doing these things have the authority to absolve? Thanks for your comments.
We used to have a priest in my parish (I believe he has since left the priesthood) who was a known alcoholic and an active homosexual. My relative has asked why the absolutions granted by this priest during those years would be more valid than an individual earnestly asking the Lord for forgiveness on his own. The way he sees it, this man was very openly committing mortal sin, so how could he absolve others of their sins and administer the sacrament? I tried to explain that no person is perfect and that all of us are sinners, but the question remains - how can someone so publicly doing these things have the authority to absolve? Thanks for your comments.