T
tomhuth
Guest
I’m in a dialogue with a woman who claims to be an “Orthodox Catholic” bishop. Best I can tell, her tiny group is a distant derivation of the Old Catholic schism. I’m discussing a number of topics with her, and eventually I want to get around to the touchy subject of the validity of female ordination (touchy because it will be very personal for her). But I want to be sure I’ve got my facts straight.
I believe I can competently explain and defend the Church’s teaching on the male-only priesthood, but there is one aspect that I want to make sure I understand properly. My presumption is that a woman is not the proper matter for Holy Orders, in a manner of speaking. Meaning, even if a woman undergoes the proper sacramental process by a valid bishop, the sacrament cannot “take” in her. Consequently, none of her attempts at conferring any of the sacraments that require a validly ordained priest would have any effect, so that, for instance, she cannot actually confect the Eucharist. Another way of putting it would be that her ordination would not only be illicit, it would be invalid.
Have I got that right?
I believe I can competently explain and defend the Church’s teaching on the male-only priesthood, but there is one aspect that I want to make sure I understand properly. My presumption is that a woman is not the proper matter for Holy Orders, in a manner of speaking. Meaning, even if a woman undergoes the proper sacramental process by a valid bishop, the sacrament cannot “take” in her. Consequently, none of her attempts at conferring any of the sacraments that require a validly ordained priest would have any effect, so that, for instance, she cannot actually confect the Eucharist. Another way of putting it would be that her ordination would not only be illicit, it would be invalid.
Have I got that right?