A
Anima_Christi
Guest
What is absolutely necessary for a baptism to be valid? The reason I ask this is because, if I am correct, water must actually flow over the forehead for a baptism to be valid and that is why the Catholic Church strongly prefers infusion (pouring) or immersion (dunking) for baptism. However, many protestant churches often baptize by aspersion (sprinkling) and often the minister will just dip his fingers in water and trace the sign of the cross over the child’s forehead and that is considered baptism to them, and the validity of this kind of baptism is questionable. I think this type of baptism is quite common in Episcopalian and Methodist churches and probably among Lutherans and Presbyterians, too. Wouldn’t it be wise for the Church to go back to conditionally baptizing converts from Protestantism as was customary before Vatican II? Why was this changed? Conditional baptisms are rare now, but I understand that they used to be the norm. If there is even a slight chance a baptism might not be valid, shouldn’t a conditional baptism be performed?
Also, I am a convert who was originally baptized by immersion in the Disciples of Christ church at age 9, and I was taught (correctly) that baptism washes away my sins. I know that the trinitarian form was used; but I’m not certain if the minister said “I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit” before dunking me in the water or during. Would this affect the validity of the baptism at all? (I hope not, because if so I might need a conditional baptism and a conditional confirmation, as my first confirmation would not have been valid if I was not validly baptized.)
Also, what about churches that think baptism is merely symbolic (like the Baptists and most other prots), are those baptisms valid too? Thank you.
Also, I am a convert who was originally baptized by immersion in the Disciples of Christ church at age 9, and I was taught (correctly) that baptism washes away my sins. I know that the trinitarian form was used; but I’m not certain if the minister said “I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit” before dunking me in the water or during. Would this affect the validity of the baptism at all? (I hope not, because if so I might need a conditional baptism and a conditional confirmation, as my first confirmation would not have been valid if I was not validly baptized.)
Also, what about churches that think baptism is merely symbolic (like the Baptists and most other prots), are those baptisms valid too? Thank you.