The other individuals on this thread have addressed that most likely the validity of the Baptism was established by your priest when initiating your wife into the Catholic Church. Since that is the case, there should be no reason to worry, and no need to perform any further actions. However, to lay any lingering fears to rest…
CCC
**1258 **The Church has always held the firm conviction that those who suffer death for the sake of the faith without having received Baptism are baptized by their death for and with Christ. This Baptism of blood, like the desire for Baptism, brings about the fruits of Baptism without being a sacrament.
**1259 **For *catechumens *who die before their Baptism, their explicit desire to receive it, together with repentance for their sins, and charity, assures them the salvation that they were not able to receive through the sacrament.
**1260 **“Since Christ died for all, and since all men are in fact called to one and the same destiny, which is divine, we must hold that the Holy Spirit offers to all the possibility of being made partakers, in a way known to God, of the Paschal mystery.” Every man who is ignorant of the Gospel of Christ and of his Church, but seeks the truth and does the will of God in accordance with his understanding of it, can be saved. It may be supposed that such persons would have desired Baptism explicitly if they had known its necessity.
Almost definitely, your wife received baptism of water, which is the normal form of the sacrament. However, if not, I believe that the last sentence I quoted would apply to her, since she would have desired Baptism explicitly if she had known she needed it (due to not having received it). Therefore, I think that based upon 1258, if nothing else this desire for Baptism would bring about the fruits of Baptism.
I think I’ve heard something about a rule that individuals are not responsible (to God) for any defects in the sacraments they receive of which they have no reason to be aware, but am not certain about this.