S
SemperFidelis
Guest
Can you explain to me, in explicit detail, what that Dogmatic teaching was?But it did expound. Thus the dogmatic constitutions. There was dogmatic teaching done in VII.
Can you explain to me, in explicit detail, what that Dogmatic teaching was?But it did expound. Thus the dogmatic constitutions. There was dogmatic teaching done in VII.
Yet some modernists think whatever came out of V2 superceded all previous councils. What’s worse?Some traditionalists have grabbed this term and emphasized it as if it was an official term for unique type of council, but it’s not.
Oh my? Are you really saying that there wasn’t a dogmatic consitution in Vatican II?Can you explain to me, in explicit detail, what that Dogmatic teaching was?
I never said there weren’t Dogmatic Constitutions. I know very well there are four Dogmatic Constitutions from Vatican II. I would just like someone to show me the explicit teachings of those four Dogmatic Constitutions. What did the Church explicitly teach here? What am I required to believe? What was revealed as truth?Oh my? Are you really saying that there wasn’t a dogmatic consitution in Vatican II?
You’re fishing here. Nobody has said that there was any new doctrine revealed. That doesn’t mean that there weren’t 2 dogmatic consitutions in Vatican II. There are 2 documents expounding on already revealed doctrine.
Actually, there are only 2 Dogmatic Consitutions - Dei Verbum and Lumen Gentium. The other two are pastoral consitutions.I never said there weren’t Dogmatic Constitutions. I know very well there are four Dogmatic Constitutions from Vatican II. I would just like someone to show me the explicit teachings of those four Dogmatic Constitutions. What did the Church explicitly teach here? What am I required to believe? What was revealed as truth?
I actually never realized this, and I’ve read all four constitutions, but thanks for pointing that out.Actually, there are only 2 Dogmatic Consitutions - Dei Verbum and Lumen Gentium.
I’m not questioning anything, just trying to prove my point that Vatican II didn’t teach anything new, or infallible, or anything that I am required to believe, and that it actually has no new explicit teachings that anyone can actually point out.As far as “what did it teach?” and “what am I required to believe?”, it might be easier to list the specific (and I mean quotes from the VII docs) which you are questioning.
Good point. Keep in mind that “patoral” is not a recognized category of councils that possess or lack any qualities to make it different from other general councils. It’s just a descriptive term. Some traditionalists have grabbed this term and emphasized it as if it was an official term for unique type of council, but it’s not.
Both are bad. Vatican II can only be properly understood in light of 2000 years of tradition. We can’t dismiss everything that came before Vat II and claim to understand Vat II.Yet some modernists think whatever came out of V2 superceded all previous councils. What’s worse?
You actually can’t dismiss ANYTHING that came before Vatican II if you are going to understand Vatican II. If Vatican II wasn’t a break with the past and Tradition (which it wasn’t), then one can’t reject Vatican II, unless they are rejecting something that came prior to Vatican II.We can’t dismiss everything that came before Vat II and claim to understand Vat II.
.I’m not questioning anything, just trying to prove my point that Vatican II didn’t teach anything new, or infallible, or anything that I am required to believe, and that it actually has no new explicit teachings that anyone can actually point out
This link still does not answer the question posed to you. What exactly has changed in V2 that is different from pre V2? Please cite the dogma specifically expounded on, and how or what I am to do, or think, or believe differently since the Council. Nobody seems to be able to specifically answer this question. Thank You.Here’s a short little piece on what I’m talking about:
matt1618.freeyellow.com/appendixd.html
bear06;2985069]Oh my? Are you really saying that there wasn’t a dogmatic consitution in Vatican II?
.You’re fishing here. Nobody has said that there was any new doctrine revealed. That doesn’t mean that there weren’t 2 dogmatic consitutions in Vatican II. There are 2 documents expounding on already revealed doctrine
Here’s a pertinent quote from the article:Here’s a short little piece on what I’m talking about:
matt1618.freeyellow.com/appendixd.html
While many of the documents were Pastoral Constitutions, there were 2 Dogmatic Constitutions: Lumen Gentium (On the Church in the Modern World) and Dei Verbum (On Divine Revelation) which were completions of the original work of Vatican I which had been interrupted by the Italian Revolution in 1870. If you look at the end of Lumen Gentium in the VCII document collection by Fr. Flannery, you will see that the CDF clearly stated that part of the document did represent authentic new teaching that was binding on the Church. Dei Verbum definitively settled a serious question on the proper way of interpreting the teaching of the Council of Trent on the relationship between Scripture and Tradition. Trent had not clarified whether we were dealing with two separate sources or one source in two forms. DV definitively settled the question in favor of the latter solution.
As regards Dignitatits Humanae (Declaration on Religious Liberty), it was NOT a Pastoral Constitution, but a declaration of teaching. This is a different kind of document. It is not a solemn definition but it is at least as definitive as an encyclical. The document reaffirmed previous Catholic teaching on the relationship between Church and State but definitely broke new ground. It defined for the first time the meaning of the “Public Order” and established that the just order in a state is inseparable from the objective moral order. The facile separation of “Public Order” from the “Common Good” postulated by some Catholic scholars was thereby rejected. There was also a clear apology for the excesses of the Inquisition and a recognition that the moral order requires that States organize their laws recognizing the dignity of the human person. This was all new.
Also, see LG #25Some people have argued that DH was only a pastoral document and therefore not irreformable. I don’t agree. This was a General Council of the Church. It is clear that doctrine developed here and subsequent Popes have always referred to the documents as part of the Magisterium. While this was not a solemn declaration of a dogma, what was taught meets the criteria for infallible teaching as part of the Ordinary Magisterium. In the same way, Cardinal Ratzinger and the CDF have made
- Among the principal duties of bishops the preaching of the Gospel occupies an eminent place.(39*) For bishops are preachers of the faith, who lead new disciples to Christ, and they are authentic teachers, that is, teachers endowed with the authority of Christ, who preach to the people committed to them the faith they must believe and put into practice, and by the light of the Holy Spirit illustrate that faith. They bring forth from the treasury of Revelation new things and old,(164) making it bear fruit and vigilantly warding off any errors that threaten their flock.(165) Bishops, teaching in communion with the Roman Pontiff, are to be respected by all as witnesses to divine and Catholic truth. In matters of faith and morals, the bishops speak in the name of Christ and the faithful are to accept their teaching and adhere to it with a religious assent. This religious submission of mind and will must be shown in a special way to the authentic magisterium of the Roman Pontiff, even when he is not speaking ex cathedra; that is, it must be shown in such a way that his supreme magisterium is acknowledged with reverence, the judgments made by him are sincerely adhered to, according to his manifest mind and will. His mind and will in the matter may be known either from the character of the documents, from his frequent repetition of the same doctrine, or from his manner of speaking.
Sigh! We’ve been over this. Read the whole thread..
Just because the word “Dogmatic” appears before Lumen Gentium (on the Church) and Dei Verbum (on Revelation) does not mean that they proclaimed dogmas or that they were infallible, but only that they treat of a matter bearing on dogma. Vatican II refused to define anything infallibly; Paul VI explicitly stated this on January 12, 1966, a few weeks after the Council’ “Given the Council’s pastoral character, it avoided pronouncing, in an extraordinary manner, dogmas endowed with the note of infallibility.”
I think it is more for some that require reinforcement of the truth.Sigh! We’ve been over this. Read the whole thread.
As per your usual, it is as simple and logical as stated..
Just because the word “Dogmatic” appears before Lumen Gentium (on the Church) and Dei Verbum (on Revelation) does not mean that they proclaimed dogmas or that they were infallible, but only that they treat of a matter bearing on dogma. Vatican II refused to define anything infallibly; Paul VI explicitly stated this on January 12, 1966, a few weeks after the Council’ “Given the Council’s pastoral character, it avoided pronouncing, in an extraordinary manner, dogmas endowed with the note of infallibility.”
I have read the thread. What about it?Sigh! We’ve been over this. Read the whole thread.
.If you look at the end of Lumen Gentium in the VCII document collection by Fr. Flannery, you will see that the CDF clearly stated that part of the document did represent authentic new teaching that was binding on the Church
Would you post the question that was settled?Dei Verbum definitively settled a serious question on** the proper way of interpreting the teaching of the Council of Trent on the relationship between Scripture and Tradition. **Trent had not clarified whether we were dealing with two separate sources or one source in two forms. DV definitively settled the question in favor of the latter solution.
Where did it reaffirm traditional teaching on separation of Church and State?As regards Dignitatits Humanae (Declaration on Religious Liberty), it was NOT a Pastoral Constitution, but a declaration of teaching. This is a different kind of document. It is not a solemn definition but it is at least as definitive as an encyclical. **The document reaffirmed previous Catholic teaching on the relationship between Church and State **
Could you post that. I would like to read it.It defined for the first time the meaning of the “Public Order” and established that the just order in a state is inseparable from the objective moral order. The facile separation of “Public Order” from the “Common Good” postulated by some Catholic scholars was thereby rejected.
An apology for the excesses of the inquistion? Could you post that please.There was also a clear apology for the excesses of the Inquisition and a recognition that the moral order requires that States organize their laws recognizing the dignity of the human person. This was all new.
I read the article, including the part I quoted. But it was you who didn’t answer the question that arose from the quote. Your article proved my point.Holy cow! It’s like nobody actually read the short article I gave or Lumen Gentium.