Vatican I

  • Thread starter Thread starter mardukm
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Dear brother Peter,
Thanks for the info about Dollinger. If I have a chance, I might try and read up on him a bit more…
I read once that Abp Henry Newman wrote a refutation of Dollinger. If you do read Dollinger, I hope you balance it with a reading of Newman on Infallibility. :gopray2:

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Chrisb,

Every single one of these sources you have brought up had nothing to do with the Pope’s primacy in teaching, nor his infallibility. They are all concerned with the TEMPORAL and SECULAR prerogatives of the Pope, not the theological basis of those prerogatives. The temporal and secular prerogatives of the Popes are not of the esse of the papacy, and no Catholic claims so, and neither did Vatican I claim so. If these archaic and non-existent temporal/secular claims is your best reason for leaving the Church, then THAT is the most saddening thing of all.
Grace and Peace mardukm,

This doesn’t appear to me to be true. If you look at the text of the Donation of Constantine it is this ‘donation’ that establishes ‘rule’ over “the four principal sees… as also over all the churches of God in all the world”.

“This grateful Emperor then conveys on the …most blessed Sylvester, our father, supreme pontiff and universal pope of the city of Rome,… he shall have rule as well over the four principal sees, Antioch, Alexandria, Constantinople and Jerusalem, as also over all the churches of God in all the world.”

~The treatise of Lorenzo Valla on the Treatise of the Donation of Constantine - page 1, text and translation by Christopher B. Coleman, University of Toronto Press, Toronto, 1993.
Btw. I’m not all that familiar with the dictus papae. Are you referring to the correspondences he had with Henry IV of France?
Actually, I thought he was Henry IV of Germany…
Demonstrate that this was the ONLY source for the Pope’s claims to primacy, and I’ll concede your point. I’ll be waiting eagerly for your response.
‘claims to primacy’… these aren’t ‘claims to primacy’ but ‘claims of Papal Monarchy’ over not only all of Rome but over the entire Church.
Btw, have any General Councils of the Catholic Church ever appealed to these three sources that you mentioned? Did the Pope make claims of primacy/supremacy BEFORE the latter half of the 8th century (the earliest generally accepted dating for the Donation; the False Decretals are dated mid-9th century; not sure about dictus papae, though that one must have been after the 10th century)? I’ll be waiting eagerly for your response.
Dictus Papae was published by Gregory VII shortly after taking office…
If your main source was Dollinger, your claim doesn’t have a leg to stand on.
I believe Dollinger knew more about Roman Catholic History and Doctrine than either you or I and I feel Vatican I was not a valid council.

Please note this is my opinion and I know it is something that others my find offensive and for that I ask apology.

Peace and God Bless.
 
Dear brother Chrisb,
Grace and Peace mardukm,

This doesn’t appear to me to be true. If you look at the text of the Donation of Constantine it is this ‘donation’ that establishes ‘rule’ over “the four principal sees… as also over all the churches of God in all the world”.

“This grateful Emperor then conveys on the …most blessed Sylvester, our father, supreme pontiff and universal pope of the city of Rome,… he shall have rule as well over the four principal sees, Antioch, Alexandria, Constantinople and Jerusalem, as also over all the churches of God in all the world.”

~The treatise of Lorenzo Valla on the Treatise of the Donation of Constantine - page 1, text and translation by Christopher B. Coleman, University of Toronto Press, Toronto, 1993.

Actually, I thought he was Henry IV of Germany…

‘claims to primacy’… these aren’t ‘claims to primacy’ but ‘claims of Papal Monarchy’ over not only all of Rome but over the entire Church.

Dictus Papae was published by Gregory VII shortly after taking office…

I believe Dollinger knew more about Roman Catholic History and Doctrine than either you or I and I feel Vatican I was not a valid council.

Please note this is my opinion and I know it is something that others my find offensive and for that I ask apology.
Thanks for the correction on Henry IV. 90% of what I write is from memory which is obviously not infallible. :D. And I am never angry when people have different beliefs than my own, but I do like to hear valid reasons from people to back up what they’re saying.

As to Dollinger, I believe Bl. John Henry Newman refuted his claims. Have you read it? And why do you believe the Vatican Council to be invalid?

I will respond to the rest of your points later in the week, if someone has not already done so.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
This doesn’t appear to me to be true. If you look at the text of the Donation of Constantine it is this ‘donation’ that establishes ‘rule’ over “the four principal sees… as also over all the churches of God in all the world”.

“This grateful Emperor then conveys on the …most blessed Sylvester, our father, supreme pontiff and universal pope of the city of Rome,… he shall have rule as well over the four principal sees, Antioch, Alexandria, Constantinople and Jerusalem, as also over all the churches of God in all the world.”

~The treatise of Lorenzo Valla on the Treatise of the Donation of Constantine - page 1, text and translation by Christopher B. Coleman, University of Toronto Press, Toronto, 1993.
Let’s do a little more study of it, shall we? Who was the first Pope that appealed to the Donatio? And what was the reason this Pope appealed to the Donatio? Did any other Pope appeal to the Donatio? And what was the reason THEY appealed to the Donatio? After you answer these questions, we can proceed with further analysis to see if your objections to it stand up to inquiry.

‘claims to primacy’… these aren’t ‘claims to primacy’ but ‘claims of Papal Monarchy’ over not only all of Rome but over the entire Church.

Let’s say I agree with you that they were claims to papal monarchy instead of primacy. My question still stands. Was this the ONLY source of the Pope’s claims? I eagerly await your response.
Dictus Papae was published by Gregory VII shortly after taking office…
Were they addressed to the Church or to Henry IV?

And you still haven’t answered my original questions:
Have any General Councils of the Catholic Church ever appealed to these three sources that you mentioned? Did the Pope make claims of primacy/supremacy BEFORE the latter half of the 8th century?
I’m looking forward to your answers to all three questions.
I believe Dollinger knew more about Roman Catholic History and Doctrine than either you or I
Dollinger’s notoriety is not based on his knowledge but on his INTERPRETATION of well-known facts. I would welcome an opportunity to critique Dollinger in the future. Do you have a link to his works?

Blessings,
Marduk
 
What does infallibility actually mean?
To put in easy to understand terms, it means that the Pope is infallible whenever he speaks to the whole Church when teaching Faith and Morals. Faith is what we believe and Morals is how we live that belief. The Bishops are Infallible when they are in union with the Pope. Christ promised that HIS Church, the Catholic Church, would never error, the gates of Hell would never prevail against it. The Holy Spirit will always protect the Catholic Church from teaching error in Faith and Morals. And for 2,000 years the Church has taught what Jesus Christ taught the Apostles. Infallibility is the protection from error given the Pope for the protection of the Catholic Church. The Church has always believed in the infallibility of the Pope, to define a Dogma means to explain more clearly something the church has always believed from the time of Christ and the Apostles.
 
Opinion? No, there were two formal statements. One was in the 1800’s with Pius IX and the other with Pius XII in 1950.

Two, fact, thanks. Good night.
So to sum up, you believe there have been two ex cathedra statements, no more and no less; I believe that’s just your opinion.

I think we could go back and forth all day saying "opinion … no, fact … no, opinion … " but I don’t think it would accomplish anything.

Thanks and good night to you too,
 
Let’s do a little more study of it, shall we? Who was the first Pope that appealed to the Donatio? And what was the reason this Pope appealed to the Donatio? Did any other Pope appeal to the Donatio? And what was the reason THEY appealed to the Donatio? After you answer these questions, we can proceed with further analysis to see if your objections to it stand up to inquiry.
It was in his negotiations with Constantinople in 1054 that Pope Leo IX resorted to huge quotations from the Donation of Constantine as a prized authority for his claims over the Eastern Church but the first pope to make a territorial claim by explicitly referring to the Donation of Constantine was Pope Urban II in 1091 when he laid claim to Corsica. Urban also claimed the Italian islands of Lipari for the papacy in the same year. (see The Papacy 1073-1198 I.S. Robinson, Cambridge University Press, Combridge, 1993.)
Let’s say I agree with you that they were claims to papal monarchy instead of primacy. My question still stands. Was this the ONLY source of the Pope’s claims? I eagerly await your response.
I can understand your conflation of claims to papal primacy and that of papal monarchy because in the West the two are bond together but I can assure you prior to the Gregorian reforms of the 11th century nothing like this had been attempted in the Church of the Living God. Understanding the abuses of the Papacy prior to Pope Gregory VII (Hildebrand) I can feel sympathy for the need of reforms in the west but like so many revolutions the Gregorian Reforms far overstepped their bounds. The second claim of the Dictus Papae states, “That the Roman pontiff alone is rightly to be called universal”. It’s important to note the mixing of monarchical and universal claims. The sixteenth claim states, “That no synod may be called a general one without his order”. Again these documents are the overstepping of any understanding of the Patriarch of Rome being ‘First among Equals’ and begins the official claims that ‘Peter is Caesar’.
Were they addressed to the Church or to Henry IV?
These are claims are a creed or manifesto of sorts which merge temporal and spiritual claims of authority and they are pressed before the Temporal Authorities as well as those of the Spiritual as I have pointed out with Pope Leo IX.
And you still haven’t answered my original questions:
Have any General Councils of the Catholic Church ever appealed to these three sources that you mentioned? Did the Pope make claims of primacy/supremacy BEFORE the latter half of the 8th century?
I’m looking forward to your answers to all three questions.
I can’t find any Councils but I know that the English Pope Adrian IV (Nicholas Breakspear), 1154-1159, bestowed Ireland on England’s King Henry II, recognizing that it was his to dispose of, based on the Donation of Constantine. As witnessed by the English historian John of Salisbury in 1159: “At my request [Hadrian IV] conceded and gave Ireland as a hereditary possession to the illustrious king of the English, Henry II, as his letter still bears witness today. For all islands are said to belong to the Roman church by ancient right, according to the donation of Constantine, who richly endowed it.”

~The Papacy 1073-1198 I.S. Robinson, Cambridge University Press, Cambridge, 1993.

The Orthodox response to this reformed papacy is best expressed by Nicetas, Archbishop of Nicomedia, in the 12th century:

My dearest brother, we do not deny to the Roman Church the primacy amongst the five sister Patriarchates; and we recognize her right to the most honourable seat at an Oecuminical Council. But she has separated herself from us by her own deeds when through pride she assumed a monarchy which does not belong to her office… How shall we accept from her decrees that have been issued without consulting us and even without our knowledge? If the Roman Pontiff, seated on the lofty throne of his glory, wishes to thunder at us and, so to speak, hurl his mandates at us from on high, and if he wishes to judge us and even to rule us and our Churches, not by taking counsel with us but at his own arbitrary pleasure, what kind of brotherhood, or even what kind of parenthood can this be? We should be the slaves, not the sons, of such a Church, and the Roman See would not be the pious mother of sons but a hard and imperious mistress of slaves.
Dollinger’s notoriety is not based on his knowledge but on his INTERPRETATION of well-known facts. I would welcome an opportunity to critique Dollinger in the future. Do you have a link to his works?
Perhaps his notoriety, to you, is based on his interpretation but his renown predated his views of infallibility.
 
Dear brother Chris,
It was in his negotiations with Constantinople in 1054 that Pope Leo IX resorted to huge quotations from the Donation of Constantine as a prized authority for his claims over the Eastern Church …Pope Urban II in 1091 laid claim to Corsica…also the Italian islands of Lipari.
So, aside from Pope Leo IX, the Donatio was utilized by Popes for the purpose of territorial claims within Latin Christendom. Good. That’s settled then. Aside from the case of Pope Leo IX, the Donatio can’t be used by you as basis for claiming hegemony over the East. What’s left for us, then, is to examine Pope Leo IX’s use of the Donatio in relation to Patriarch Michael Cerularius. Was he using the Donatio to claim mastery over the East? Perhaps it was something else.

Unbiased historical accounts of the matter (e.g., Claudio Rendina’s The Popes Histories and Secrets, and Karl F. Morrison’s Tradition and Authority in the Western Church,etc.) and even anti-papal Protestant accounts of the matter assign to the Donatio an exclusive influence in the affairs of the WESTERN Church. Its mention by Pope Leo IX to Patriarch Michael Cerularius was not for the purpose of imposing the Pope’s authority over the East, but rather merely to defend the Western See against the patriarch’s unscrupulous charge of heresy against the Latin Church for her use of unleavened bread. Pope Leo IX argued that he cannot judge the Western Patriarchate since it was the primatial See, quoting the Donatio in the process to prove the primatial status of the Roman See – once again, not to impose jurisdiction on the Easterns, but merely to refute the Eastern Patriarch’s claim to be able to judge the Western patriarchate.

To that end, Pope Leo wrote his letter thus: To open, Pope Leo introduces the purpose of his letter, assailing the patriarch for having the “presumption and incredible audacity” to condemn “the apostolic Church unheard and uncondemned” (i.e., through no ecumenical synod, but by his own presumptuous authority). Then he proceeded to his arguments against the invalidity of the patriarch’s presumption. First, he pointed out that the Easterns had so often depended on the Western Church as the standard of orthodoxy to stamp out the numerous heresies that had originated from the East, heresies that were even supported by so many of the Patriarchs of Constantinople. Next, he criticized the Constantinopolitan patriarch’s claim to the title of “ecumenical patriarch,” quoting at length St. Gregory’s repudiation of the title, pointing out that Rome had not used it even when Chalcedon offered it to Leo. At this point, he finally appeals to the Donatio to establish that the See of Rome was the primatial See, and that it cannot be judged by anyone. Leo follows up by claiming that Constantinople owed such eminence as it had to Rome, for out of love for Constantine, she agreed that the city which he adorned with human honors should also enjoy ecclesiastical precedence, always preserving the ancient dignity of “the principal and apostolic sees of Antioch and Alexandria.” After all this, Leo asserts the usual spiritual-theological foundations of the papal claims, and adds that the Donatio merely reinforces those claims, but are not the basis for them - “…imperial attributes are but a useful ornament on this structure.”

Some sources also claim that Pope Leo IX’s use of the Donatio was an attempt to regain the territories of southern Italy from the Byzantines, but nothing more than that, and certainly not to make a claim over the entire East!

That Rome tried to use the Donatio to establish dominance over the East is a polemical fiction. That is proven not only by the full contents of Pope Leo’s letter, but also by the fact that it was never used by Rome in its relations with the East afterwards. The argument was probably brought into the usual repertoire of EO senseless polemics by some anti-Catholic convert from Protestantism.
I can understand your conflation of claims to papal primacy and that of papal monarchy because in the West the two are bond together but I can assure you prior to the Gregorian reforms of the 11th century nothing like this had been attempted in the Church of the Living God. Understanding the abuses of the Papacy prior to Pope Gregory VII (Hildebrand) I can feel sympathy for the need of reforms in the west but like so many revolutions the Gregorian Reforms far overstepped their bounds. The second claim of the Dictus Papae states, “That the Roman pontiff alone is rightly to be called universal”. It’s important to note the mixing of monarchical and universal claims. The sixteenth claim states, “That no synod may be called a general one without his order”. Again these documents are the overstepping of any understanding of the Patriarch of Rome being ‘First among Equals’ and begins the official claims that ‘Peter is Caesar’.
What you understand is really your own misconception of the papacy as an absolute monarchy. Trust me. Eastern and Oriental Catholics don’t view him that way, and a majority of Latin Catholics don’t either. It’s only a polemic to justify an unjustified agenda against the papacy. No truth to it whatsoever, except by virtue of the fanciful imaginings of polemicists.

Second, the dictatus papae and the Donatio were utilized ONLY in the West to increase the Pope’s temporal prerogatives in reaction (perhaps overreaction) to the attempts of the State to control the Church. They have nothing to do with the relationship of the Latin Church with the Eastern Church. That is why none of those documents you mentioned are quoted as authorities by the reunion Councils of Lyons or Florence, nor by any other General Council of the Catholic Church. And by the time of the Council of Trent, they had fallen into disrepute. So appeal to these documents as a basis for the tension between Eastern Orthodoxy and Catholicism is unfounded at best, sinfully divisive at worst. Stop listening to those polemicists, brother. I’m not saying don’t be EO. I’m just saying don’t be a senseless polemicist. Work for unity and understanding.
These are claims are a creed or manifesto of sorts which merge temporal and spiritual claims of authority and they are pressed before the Temporal Authorities as well as those of the Spiritual as I have pointed out with Pope Leo IX.
To repeat, the conflation of Spiritual and Temporal papal prerogatives occurred only in the sphere of Latin Christendom brother. Once again, don’t attempt to extrapolate it to the relationship of the Pope to Eastern Christendom.
I can’t find any Councils but I know that the English Pope Adrian IV (Nicholas Breakspear), 1154-1159, bestowed Ireland on England’s King Henry II, recognizing that it was his to dispose of, based on the Donation of Constantine. As witnessed by the English historian John of Salisbury in 1159: “At my request [Hadrian IV] conceded and gave Ireland as a hereditary possession to the illustrious king of the English, Henry II, as his letter still bears witness today. For all islands are said to belong to the Roman church by ancient right, according to the donation of Constantine, who richly endowed it.”
Thanks for demonstrating how the influence of these documents was limited to the Pope’s relationship with Western Christendom. But you still haven’t answered my question: Did the Pope make claims of primacy/supremacy BEFORE the latter half of the 8th century?
The Orthodox response to this reformed papacy is best expressed by Nicetas, Archbishop of Nicomedia, in the 12th century:

My dearest brother …but a hard and imperious mistress of slaves.
Let’s be clear on the context. Nicetas of Nicomedia was in a debate with Anselm of Havelberg. Anselm was himself a papal extremist and had suggested to Nicetas that the Easterns are bound to obey the Pope just because the Pope says so, without recourse to consultation or discussion with his brother bishops. THAT is the context of Abp Nicetas’ response. But we know, as I have proven in this thread, that the Pope does not make decrees without recourse to his brother bishops.
Perhaps his notoriety, to you, is based on his interpretation but his renown predated his views of infallibility.
Somehow, I seriously doubt that the non-Catholic polemicist’s interest in him goes beyond his interpretative contribution to arguments against the papacy.:rolleyes:

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Chris,

So, aside from Pope Leo IX, the Donatio was utilized by Popes for the purpose of territorial claims within Latin Christendom. Good. That’s settled then. Aside from the case of Pope Leo IX, the Donatio can’t be used by you as basis for claiming hegemony over the East. What’s left for us, then, is to examine Pope Leo IX’s use of the Donatio in relation to Patriarch Michael Cerularius. Was he using the Donatio to claim mastery over the East? Perhaps it was something else.

Unbiased historical accounts of the matter (e.g., Claudio Rendina’s The Popes Histories and Secrets, and Karl F. Morrison’s Tradition and Authority in the Western Church,etc.) and even anti-papal Protestant accounts of the matter assign to the Donatio an exclusive influence in the affairs of the WESTERN Church. Its mention by Pope Leo IX to Patriarch Michael Cerularius was not for the purpose of imposing the Pope’s authority over the East, but rather merely to defend the Western See against the patriarch’s unscrupulous charge of heresy against the Latin Church for her use of unleavened bread. Pope Leo IX argued that he cannot judge the Western Patriarchate since it was the primatial See, quoting the Donatio in the process to prove the primatial status of the Roman See – once again, not to impose jurisdiction on the Easterns, but merely to refute the Eastern Patriarch’s claim to be able to judge the Western patriarchate.

To that end, Pope Leo wrote his letter thus: To open, Pope Leo introduces the purpose of his letter, assailing the patriarch for having the “presumption and incredible audacity” to condemn “the apostolic Church unheard and uncondemned” (i.e., through no ecumenical synod, but by his own presumptuous authority). Then he proceeded to his arguments against the invalidity of the patriarch’s presumption. First, he pointed out that the Easterns had so often depended on the Western Church as the standard of orthodoxy to stamp out the numerous heresies that had originated from the East, heresies that were even supported by so many of the Patriarchs of Constantinople. Next, he criticized the Constantinopolitan patriarch’s claim to the title of “ecumenical patriarch,” quoting at length St. Gregory’s repudiation of the title, pointing out that Rome had not used it even when Chalcedon offered it to Leo. At this point, he finally appeals to the Donatio to establish that the See of Rome was the primatial See, and that it cannot be judged by anyone. Leo follows up by claiming that Constantinople owed such eminence as it had to Rome, for out of love for Constantine, she agreed that the city which he adorned with human honors should also enjoy ecclesiastical precedence, always preserving the ancient dignity of “the principal and apostolic sees of Antioch and Alexandria.” After all this, Leo asserts the usual spiritual-theological foundations of the papal claims, and adds that the Donatio merely reinforces those claims, but are not the basis for them - “…imperial attributes are but a useful ornament on this structure.”

Some sources also claim that Pope Leo IX’s use of the Donatio was an attempt to regain the territories of southern Italy from the Byzantines, but nothing more than that, and certainly not to make a claim over the entire East!

That Rome tried to use the Donatio to establish dominance over the East is a polemical fiction. That is proven not only by the full contents of Pope Leo’s letter, but also by the fact that it was never used by Rome in its relations with the East afterwards. The argument was probably brought into the usual repertoire of EO senseless polemics by some anti-Catholic convert from Protestantism.

What you understand is really your own misconception of the papacy as an absolute monarchy. Trust me. Eastern and Oriental Catholics don’t view him that way, and a majority of Latin Catholics don’t either. It’s only a polemic to justify an unjustified agenda against the papacy. No truth to it whatsoever, except by virtue of the fanciful imaginings of polemicists.

Second, the dictatus papae and the Donatio were utilized ONLY in the West to increase the Pope’s temporal prerogatives in reaction (perhaps overreaction) to the attempts of the State to control the Church. They have nothing to do with the relationship of the Latin Church with the Eastern Church. That is why none of those documents you mentioned are quoted as authorities by the reunion Councils of Lyons or Florence, nor by any other General Council of the Catholic Church. And by the time of the Council of Trent, they had fallen into disrepute. So appeal to these documents as a basis for the tension between Eastern Orthodoxy and Catholicism is unfounded at best, sinfully divisive at worst. Stop listening to those polemicists, brother. I’m not saying don’t be EO. I’m just saying don’t be a senseless polemicist. Work for unity and understanding.

To repeat, the conflation of Spiritual and Temporal papal prerogatives occurred only in the sphere of Latin Christendom brother. Once again, don’t attempt to extrapolate it to the relationship of the Pope to Eastern Christendom.

Thanks for demonstrating how the influence of these documents was limited to the Pope’s relationship with Western Christendom. But you still haven’t answered my question: Did the Pope make claims of primacy/supremacy BEFORE the latter half of the 8th century?

Let’s be clear on the context. Nicetas of Nicomedia was in a debate with Anselm of Havelberg. Anselm was himself a papal extremist and had suggested to Nicetas that the Easterns are bound to obey the Pope just because the Pope says so, without recourse to consultation or discussion with his brother bishops. THAT is the context of Abp Nicetas’ response. But we know, as I have proven in this thread, that the Pope does not make decrees without recourse to his brother bishops.

Somehow, I seriously doubt that the non-Catholic polemicist’s interest in him goes beyond his interpretative contribution to arguments against the papacy.:rolleyes:

Blessings,
Marduk
Thank you Marduk, we need someone like you on every thread on this forum it seems. The things they throw at the Catholic Church without ever stopping to think that she has survived 2,000 years of all sorts of false claims and She continually carries on the mission Jesus Christ gave Her in the beginning. And always will. The Catholic Church under the leadership of the Pope has seen kingdoms come and go, nations rise and fall, and she stands strong and holy today, the One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church that Jesus promised the “Gates of Hell would never prevail against”. And they haven’t and they won’t! EVER. My faith is is the promise of Jesus not the false claims of others.
 
Yes, Marduk deserves our gratitude for his exquisite service in defense of the Catholic Church.

Ditto for Ghosty and the other budding apologists in our midst!
 
Thank you Marduk, we need someone like you on every thread on this forum it seems. The things they throw at the Catholic Church without ever stopping to think that she has survived 2,000 years of all sorts of false claims and She continually carries on the mission Jesus Christ gave Her in the beginning. And always will. The Catholic Church under the leadership of the Pope has seen kingdoms come and go, nations rise and fall, and she stands strong and holy today, the One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church that Jesus promised the “Gates of Hell would never prevail against”. And they haven’t and they won’t! EVER. My faith is is the promise of Jesus not the false claims of others.
You must be reading the wrong threads. I’ve seen a number of Protestant and Orthodox posters who present their arguments in a very polite and reasonable manner.

Either you’ve been reading the wrong threads, or you’re focusing too much on the “bad apples” and not enough on the good.
 
After reading your posts mardukm, I must conclude that the VI council is not ecumenical. There is no sense of synodality or conciliarity within this.
 
After reading your posts mardukm, I must conclude that the VI council is not ecumenical. There is no sense of synodality or conciliarity within this.
Jimmy what is your litmus test for synodality or conciliatory and what satisfies you that something is “ecumenical”? A Maronite perspective on this will be most interesting.
 
Considering the fact that the statements from the bishops of VI found in mardukm’s post say clearly that the pope does not need the rest of the bishops to make infallible statements shows absolutely zero conciliarity or synodality. I don’t see how mardukm can post these statements from these bishops and then say that apostolic canon 34 is represented by the western ecclesiology. It is not. AC 34 clearly says that the head bishop is not to act apart from the rest of the bishops.
 
After reading your posts mardukm, I must conclude that the VI council is not ecumenical. There is no sense of synodality or conciliarity within this.
Wasn’t that what you believed already?
 
Dear brother Jimmy,
Considering the fact that the statements from the bishops of VI found in mardukm’s post say clearly that the pope does not need the rest of the bishops to make infallible statements shows absolutely zero conciliarity or synodality. I don’t see how mardukm can post these statements from these bishops and then say that apostolic canon 34 is represented by the western ecclesiology. It is not. AC 34 clearly says that the head bishop is not to act apart from the rest of the bishops.
Please answer the following questions succinctly:
  1. Where do the Vatican I Fathers state the Pope acts “apart from the rest of the bishops?” Whether in the formation of a decree, the promulgation of a decree, and/or the acceptance of the decree, his brother bishops are always there.
  2. What does the Apostolic Canon specifically state is the purpose of the consent of all the bishops together (head and body)?
  3. Do you believe that consensus determines Truth or simply reflects Truth?
  4. How does the idea of consensus exactly work in your view? Suppose seven out of 100 bishops is wrong? Is there consensus? Should the other 93 bishops attempt to accomodate the other seven, perhaps water down a certain teaching so that ALL bishops come to an agreement?
  5. What are the differences/similarities between Vatican I and the Council of Jerusalem in Scripture? Was there debate at the Council of Jerusalem? Do you suppose EVERYONE came to an agreement before the head bishop (St. James) gave his judgment? Where was the consensus at the Council of Jerusalem?
  6. After the Vatican Council, did any bishop of the Catholic Church initiate a schism? Is your understanding of consensus satisfied by the fact that there was no schism?
Blessings,
Marduk
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top