J
jerome_ky
Guest
There’s a story out now about Cardinal Walter Kasper being quoted as saying that there were deliberate ambiguities inserted into the documents of Vatican II. I have been searching online about this and I see a lot of people agreeing and saying, We knew this all along, but every example of “ambiguity” someone gives seems very non-ambiguous.
Here’s one example- and I’m sorry but I’ve lost the original link. A claim was made that Dignitatus Humanae discourages coercion in matters of religion, but affirms a type of coercion as being permitted, so long as it is missionary. That’s not the exact wording of the claim. But I went through Dignitatus Humanae, and there is no statement with the word “coercion” or “coerce” which refers to it in any way but negative- no coercion is allowed, men are entitled to freedom from coercion, an immunity to coercion, it is a principle of the Church that no one is to be coerced into the faith.
One example doesn’t make an argument, of course. But with all the affirmations of ambiguities in the documents, someone here should be able to give a clear example of at least one obvious one. That is to say, an example from the documents themselves, NOT an example of someone else SAYING there is ambiguity, even if it’s one of the authors of the conciliar document.
Oh, and the example needs to be within reasonable bounds, not just an ambiguous definition of the same word in two different contexts. This is something a lot of people seem to feel very strongly about, so it has to stand up to a reasonable use of our faculties
Here’s one example- and I’m sorry but I’ve lost the original link. A claim was made that Dignitatus Humanae discourages coercion in matters of religion, but affirms a type of coercion as being permitted, so long as it is missionary. That’s not the exact wording of the claim. But I went through Dignitatus Humanae, and there is no statement with the word “coercion” or “coerce” which refers to it in any way but negative- no coercion is allowed, men are entitled to freedom from coercion, an immunity to coercion, it is a principle of the Church that no one is to be coerced into the faith.
One example doesn’t make an argument, of course. But with all the affirmations of ambiguities in the documents, someone here should be able to give a clear example of at least one obvious one. That is to say, an example from the documents themselves, NOT an example of someone else SAYING there is ambiguity, even if it’s one of the authors of the conciliar document.
Oh, and the example needs to be within reasonable bounds, not just an ambiguous definition of the same word in two different contexts. This is something a lot of people seem to feel very strongly about, so it has to stand up to a reasonable use of our faculties