T
twiztedseraph
Guest
Ok, I asked this on the ask an apologist thing Fr Serpa gave me a great reply, tho I think it’ll go over the head of the traditionalist I’m working on. So how can we as Catholics, explain to traditionalists that Vatican II orders are valid. Not just valid but also licit, as they changed the obvious word “ordain” to “assign” can anyone think of a good reason. BTW just to clarify I do believe Vatican II orders are valid, else I’ve committed idolatry too many times (mass with new priests).