… It seems the weight of the council was non-binding
Seems to who? Paul VI? No. John Paul I? No. John Paul II? No. Benedict XVI? No.
I believe you have a terribly flawed understanding of Catholic dogmatic, doctrine, and what is and is not binding upon all Catholcis.
Which POPE ever declared that the Vatican II decrees, constitutions and declarations were not in accord with Scripture and the immutable definitive Tradition of the Catholic Church? What POPE ever declared that the Vatican II decrees, constitutions and declarations were not
binding? Canon law declares they are binding!
The only reason one may dissent with Vatican II is if Paul VI, John Paul I, John Paul II, and Benedict XVI were not not valid popes, which would necessarily mean that all the bishops throughout the world for the past frew decades since Vatican II were not really in union with the Roman Pontiff, as they too were promulgating the teachings of a “robber council” which was never ratified by a valid pope. That’s it. That’s the only way Vatican II could NOT be binding upon all Catholics. Any honest student of Catholic teaching could draw no other conclusion. Ain’t that right, gorman64?
What do you think “pastoral” means? You seem to think it means, “just a suggestion…not binding.” It doesn’t, not according to Paul VI who made Vatican II BINDING although it was pastoral. Not according to all the popes since Vatican II.
For example, the Ecumenical Council of Florence in the 15th cent. declared the following, but did not declare it
definitively, which means it was taught
pastorally…yet it was indeed binding…
"Most firmly it believes, professes and preaches that … one and the same God is the author of the old and the new Testament — that is, the law and the prophets, and the gospel — since the saints of both testaments spoke under the inspiration of the same Spirit. It accepts and venerates their books, whose titles are as follows.
Five books of Moses, namely Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy … the four gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John; … Apocalypse of John."
Thus, as every canonist would tell you, the canon of Scripture was universally binding by virtue of this non-definitive (ie. pastoral) declaration. Every ecumenical council is marked by pastoral teachings. They never meant that they were to be discared at will. They are authentic exercises of magisterium once they have been ratified by the Roman Pontiff. So, by virture of true obedience and subordination to the Roman Pontiff, which is necessary for salvation (cf.
Unam Sanctum), what is taught even pastorally by the Roman Pontiff as
sententia certa is binding, to include submission to the disciplinary norms and governing instructions of the Roman Pontiff.
“Pastoral” means “by virtue of the authority of the Magisterium” which although differs in kind from teachings promulgated definitively by virue of the authority of the Solemn Magisterium, it is still authentic teachings of the magisterium which requires what pre-Vatican II and post-Vatican II described as
RELIGIOSUM OBSEQUIUM. No honest study of religiosum obsequium could conclude that it is compatible with dissent.
Catholics have always been bound to submit to their pastors, even when thought they were not teaching infallibly with solemn definitions (cf. Heb 13:17). When they teach with the authority of their Ordinary Magisterium, we owe our religious assent. Pre-Vatican II popes such as Pius XII make this quite clear.
Consequently, your interpretation of Paul VI’s quotes are absurd.