B
Bubba_Switzler
Guest
Let us suppose, for the sake of argument, that no Pope in recent history has “acted out-of-line on declaring a matter of faith or morals”. (Let’s not drudge into the darker periods of the papacy.)What are the arguments that a council should do this? When has a recent Pope acted out-of-line on declaring a matter of faith or morals?
Now let me pose the question differently: Does the Pope need the authority to unilaterally declare matters on faith or morals?
Because if the answer to the second question is also “no”, and given the fact that many non-Catholic denominations are suspicious of Catholicism precisely because of the papacy, doesn’t it stand to reason that making the Pope “first among equals” might go a long way towards attracting Protestants back to Catholicism? (That is the primary issue for the Eastern Orthodox and the Anglicans.)