E
eroche
Guest
In Catholic Moral Theology there is a principle which says that a good end does not justify an evil means to that end. Or, in other words, the end does not justify the means (Veritatis Splendor, n. 81).
I know that this applies to *human *acts and not to God’s actions. However, I was just wondering how or why it is differnt for God?
For example, when it says in Exodus 12:29:
“And it came to pass, that at midnight the LORD smote all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh that sat on his throne unto the firstborn of the captive that was in the dungeon; and all the firstborn of cattle.”
…then my faith tells me that God was justified in this act.
But how does it reconcile with the principle that the end does not justify the means?
I know that this applies to *human *acts and not to God’s actions. However, I was just wondering how or why it is differnt for God?
For example, when it says in Exodus 12:29:
“And it came to pass, that at midnight the LORD smote all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh that sat on his throne unto the firstborn of the captive that was in the dungeon; and all the firstborn of cattle.”
…then my faith tells me that God was justified in this act.
But how does it reconcile with the principle that the end does not justify the means?