Virgin Birth Based on Outdated Beliefs About Conception?

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Sure about that? After all, we see her saying, “he has looked upon his handmaid’s lowliness; behold, from now on will all ages call me blessed. The Mighty One has done great things for me, and holy is his name.”
After Elizabeth was prompted by the Holy Spirit to honor her.

There’s a vital reason for that.
 
It has been demonstrated that the doctrine of virgin birth is likely based off of ancient views of conception.
No, what’s been demonstrated is that some allegedly educated person thinks so based on a half-baked non sequitur.
 
He was unaware of the guilty party.
Well, he would be absolutely aware of “the guilty party.” He knows that he hasn’t had sex with her, he knows that she is pergnant… it wouldn’t seem to be very difficult for him to figure out “what happened”
If that would have happened, then Mary would be honorably married and she and the child cared for.
But you just said she told him it was the Holy Spirit, so he would know that would be the story she was running with.
 
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Well, he would be absolutely aware of “the guilty party.”
He presumes the existence of a ‘guilty party’, but doesn’t know who he is. Therefore, he cannot accuse him (or Mary) of a crime he cannot prove as such.
But you just said she told him it was the Holy Spirit, so he would know that would be the story she was running with.
Right, but aside from that story? No proof. (And, there would be no proof admissible under Mosaic law to allow her story to be admitted into evidence, either.)
 
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Also how would privately divorcing her solve this problem?

Scenario A: Joseph divorces her privately. Everyone else finds out she is pregnant. They ask Joseph why he has divorced his pregnant wife. He says “the child is not mine” so they ask Mary, “who is the child’s father?” And she says “its Joe Bob’s child” so they say “go marry Joe Bob.”

Scenario B: Joseph publicly divorces her because “the child is not mine.” They don’t ask her who the father is, they just immediately stone her.

Why the difference in the reaction? Why do they stone her if Joseph publicly divorces her, but they don’t stone her when they find out Joseph has dovorced her?
 
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They ask Joseph why he has divorced his pregnant wife. He says “the child is not mine”
No, this doesn’t follow. He doesn’t have to say this. Remember, the one legal theory is that a man can divorce his wife “for any reason whatsoever.” Please recall that this question is the one that’s put to Jesus, later on.

So, Joseph could have simply replied, “she was not pleasing to me as a wife, so I divorced her.” No implication of infidelity; no cause for stoning on account of ‘fornication’.
Why the difference in the reaction?
In “scenario A”, Mary ends up married to ‘Joe Bob’, and they raise their child together.

That’s a pretty big difference from “Mary gets stoned to death and her baby dead along with her”, wouldn’t you say?
 
I guess that is theoretically possible. I’m not sure how any of this connects to Joseph being a “just” man or not.

Also, we are now suggesting Joseph would lie, which might be “merciful” but would certainly not be “just”.

I don’t think that is the meaning of the Scripture, but since it is a sin to claim one interpretation HAS to be true when the Church does not make that claim, I will simply say that I think it is more likely thag Joseph always knew Mary was faithful.
 
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Julius_Caesar:
You realize what the Law prescribed for woman in Mary’s situation. Stoning. Especially since the other party was unavailable.
And was it not in this very thread that someone suggested putting her aside quietly would not save her from this fate?
So he shames a virtuous honourable.woman who he trusts utterly by sending her away and refusing to marry her? Not likely.
So we have a conundrum. It would be unjust to publicly divorce a woman who was not unfaithful, yet even “secretly” divorcing her would result in her public shame anyway. The only solution would be to provide for her but not live with her.

If divorcing an unfaithful woman is unjust on account of the severity of the punishment then you suggest that Joseph, because of his justness, was going to do something unjust.
Well, as I see it, if he put her away quietly people could only guess at a reason (the only reasonable assumptions all involving her being not virtuous in some way). Rather than a public divorce involving a specific accusation by Joseph.

The very idea of her being put aside in this way in and of itself woukd be shameful. Few if any other men would want to marry a cast-off. More especially a cast-off unwed mother. Huge stigma.

Yes, he spared her the additional PUBLIC disgrace of PUBLICLY making accusations against her. But there still would have been raised eyebrows and disgrace.
 
Also, we are now suggesting Joseph would lie, which might be “merciful” but would certainly not be “just”
And Joseph would claim the Child as his own after the Angel spoke to him. Would he be lying then?
 
Also, we are now suggesting Joseph would lie, which might be “merciful” but would certainly not be “just”.
No, we’re suggesting that Joseph wouldn’t bring a case for adultery that he could not prove.
since it is a sin to claim one interpretation HAS to be true when the Church does not make that claim
Hmm…?
Rather than a public divorce involving a specific accusation by Joseph.
Why do people keep saying “public divorce”? There’s no indication of that as an alternative in the text! I think that, given the context, the alternative would be “accusing Mary of adultery.” Since he could not prove it (and, IMHO, since it seems reasonable that he and Mary would have talked about it, and that she would have said “an angel came to me”), the ‘just’ thing to do would be to not press a case he couldn’t prove. Therefore… “divorce her quietly.”
Few if any other men would want to marry a cast-off.
The point would be that, as a divorced woman, she would be able to name her paramour and, under the Law, compel him to make an honest woman out of her.
But there still would have been raised eyebrows and disgrace.
She hadn’t yet entered her husband’s home. She came home from a visit to relatives 3-4 months pregnant. You don’t think that there was already “raised eyebrows and disgrace”?
And Joseph would claim the Child as his own after the Angel spoke to him. Would he be lying then?
No; he would be the father in a legal sense. No lie there.
 
Why do people keep saying “public divorce”? There’s no indication of that as an alternative in the text! I think that, given the context, the alternative would be “accusing Mary of adultery.” Since he could not prove it (and, IMHO, since it seems reasonable that he and Mary would have talked about it, and that she would have said “an angel came to me”),
At which point he would have been appalled by blasphemy and the stones would’ve flown regardless.
 
At which point he would have been appalled by blasphemy and the stones would’ve flown regardless.
Again: “on the testimony of two or more witnesses”. He didn’t have that, either, if this was – as you wrote – “no one knew besides Joseph and Mary”. One didn’t merely have the right to proclaim “blasphemy!” on one’s own initiative and start lobbing stones…
 
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Gorgias:
Why do people keep saying “public divorce”? There’s no indication of that as an alternative in the text! I think that, given the context, the alternative would be “accusing Mary of adultery.” Since he could not prove it (and, IMHO, since it seems reasonable that he and Mary would have talked about it, and that she would have said “an angel came to me”),
At which point he would have been appalled by blasphemy and the stones would’ve flown regardless.
Matthew 1
19 Whereupon Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing publicly to expose her, was minded to put her away privately. 20 But while he thought on these things, behold the angel of the Lord appeared to him in his sleep, saying: Joseph, son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife, for that which is conceived in her, is of the Holy Ghost.
 
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