N
NewAbdalMaseeh
Guest
Greetings…
As I have approached Orthodoxy/Catholicism, and contemplated conversion, one issue that has been very big for me is the Bible. I have been especially interested in the Biblical texts which were excised from the canon in Protestant Bibles. Over the course of my readings, and my subsequent engagements in what might be called armchair/amateur/novice apologetics, I have taken to referring to those texts as the Deuterocanonicals. On a couple occasions, I have even said to Protestants “I don’t consider them ‘apocryphal’ - to me they arethe Deuterocanonicals”.
Now, while I knew Deuterocanonical meant “second canon,” I always thought it was the official term for those Old Testament texts which are not part of the Jewish canon once it was solidified. However, last night I was reading the introduction to the “Apocrypha” section of Lancelot C.L. Benton’s The Septuagint with Apocrypha, and one statement in that introduction struck me as interesting:
I look forward to any light or information anyone can shed on this…
As I have approached Orthodoxy/Catholicism, and contemplated conversion, one issue that has been very big for me is the Bible. I have been especially interested in the Biblical texts which were excised from the canon in Protestant Bibles. Over the course of my readings, and my subsequent engagements in what might be called armchair/amateur/novice apologetics, I have taken to referring to those texts as the Deuterocanonicals. On a couple occasions, I have even said to Protestants “I don’t consider them ‘apocryphal’ - to me they arethe Deuterocanonicals”.
Now, while I knew Deuterocanonical meant “second canon,” I always thought it was the official term for those Old Testament texts which are not part of the Jewish canon once it was solidified. However, last night I was reading the introduction to the “Apocrypha” section of Lancelot C.L. Benton’s The Septuagint with Apocrypha, and one statement in that introduction struck me as interesting:
I was struck by the portion I put the emphasis on. It seems this statement (written in the early second half of the 19th century) understood Deuterocanonical to refer to something as somewhat less than canonical. Is that true? Was this term originally a slur that Catholics merely adopted (like “Roman Catholic”)?During the Reformation period, the Church of Rome decreed her adherence to the popular view of the Apocrypha held in the main by the early Church, and definitely accepted all the “other books” as canonical, save I. and II. Esdras and the Prayer of Manasseh. The Church of England, on the other hand, formally adopted the more critical view of Jerome, and while retaining the Apocrypha in her Bible gave it not canonical but deutero-canonical rank. In more recent times it has been the unfortunate custom of English-speaking people to neglect or despise the Apocrypha
I look forward to any light or information anyone can shed on this…