I have been reading theology of the body. And I am still trying to grasp what JPII had to say about the fall. He says Gods plans where not. I of course believe him but can someone help me grasp this and what does the protestant church have to say on this? Or do we believe the same?
At least in the Roman Catholic theological tradition, there have been two major schools of thought: the Thomist, and the Scotist
Thomism - sees the Incarnation & Passion as a remedy for the Fall
Scotism - sees the Incarnation as part of God’s purpose in creation from the very beginning,
even had there been no Fall.
To use the language of Calvinism: the foundation for the Incarnation is post-lapsarian for Thomists, pre-lapsarian for Scotists.
JP2, AFAICS, adopted the Scotist perspective. I think it is the perspective of the CCC as well.
It has the great advantage of avoiding any appearance of making the Incarnation dependent on human sin; its weakness is that the NT evidence appears to favour the Thomist perspective. OTOH, although the NT is clear that Christ came as Saviour (& that therefore, man needed to be saved, from God’s wrath at sin), a reply open to the Scotist is that the** mode**
of the Incarnation, but not the
fact of its occurring, is what the NT describes. IOW, because man needs salvation, the NT speaks of that need - but does not concern itself with the further question as to whether the Incarnation “would have” occurred anyway.
We’re getting into very deep waters - someone else will be able to put things better
