C
Claus
Guest
A couple of weeks ago, the main topic of our session was Salvation. After reading the second paragraph on the session handout, I was deeply troubled.
The paragraph reads:
“God does not will suffering on anyone and therefore it was not His intention that Jesus be put to death as a condition for our being released from the power of sin. Jesus’ suffering and painful death was the result of his being rejected by human beings.”
I come from an Anglican background and the teachings we hold which I initially thought was the same for Catholics was: through one man sin came into the world; the scripture states that the penalty for sin is death, so each sinner has to die (spiritually) for their sins. BUT God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son that whosoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. So basically God sent his son to pay the penalty for our sins (death) by shedding his blood on the cross so that we can achieve salvation provided we believe in him.
When I discovered the difference I questioned my instructor, and the answer I got was: it was not God’s plan for Jesus to die, if all the people during Jesus’ time had repented upon hearing his teachings, then there was no need for him to die. He died only because of the rejection he suffered from his people.
To which I replied: but Jesus suffering and death was already prophesied by the OT prophets (e.g Isaiah 53), surely this must mean that God’s will was for Christ to come and die to set us free; my instructor insisted that God’s original plan was for Christ not to die.
This made me more confused than ever and had more questions needing answers, e.g if the people had repented and Jesus did not have to die than the prophecies of the OT would not have been fulfilled/false; if Jesus’ blood was was not shed, how can the new covenant be sealed and our redemption achieved; If the people during Jesus time had repented and there was no need for him to die, then what about the redemption of sinners who were not yet born at the time. I sought a second opinion from a priest in the diocese who agrees that the material in the handout was confusing but did not have time to help me further.
However my sponsor (a catholic) agreed with the Anglican teaching and quoted the words of Christ when praying at the garden of Gethsemene “Let not my will be done, but THINE”, so it was God’s will for Jesus to die for our sins.
I am so troubled to the extent of considering not attending anymore sessions but before I make a decision I definitely NEED to know what exactly is the teaching of the Catholic Church on this.
PLEASE HELP.
The paragraph reads:
“God does not will suffering on anyone and therefore it was not His intention that Jesus be put to death as a condition for our being released from the power of sin. Jesus’ suffering and painful death was the result of his being rejected by human beings.”
I come from an Anglican background and the teachings we hold which I initially thought was the same for Catholics was: through one man sin came into the world; the scripture states that the penalty for sin is death, so each sinner has to die (spiritually) for their sins. BUT God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son that whosoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. So basically God sent his son to pay the penalty for our sins (death) by shedding his blood on the cross so that we can achieve salvation provided we believe in him.
When I discovered the difference I questioned my instructor, and the answer I got was: it was not God’s plan for Jesus to die, if all the people during Jesus’ time had repented upon hearing his teachings, then there was no need for him to die. He died only because of the rejection he suffered from his people.
To which I replied: but Jesus suffering and death was already prophesied by the OT prophets (e.g Isaiah 53), surely this must mean that God’s will was for Christ to come and die to set us free; my instructor insisted that God’s original plan was for Christ not to die.
This made me more confused than ever and had more questions needing answers, e.g if the people had repented and Jesus did not have to die than the prophecies of the OT would not have been fulfilled/false; if Jesus’ blood was was not shed, how can the new covenant be sealed and our redemption achieved; If the people during Jesus time had repented and there was no need for him to die, then what about the redemption of sinners who were not yet born at the time. I sought a second opinion from a priest in the diocese who agrees that the material in the handout was confusing but did not have time to help me further.
However my sponsor (a catholic) agreed with the Anglican teaching and quoted the words of Christ when praying at the garden of Gethsemene “Let not my will be done, but THINE”, so it was God’s will for Jesus to die for our sins.
I am so troubled to the extent of considering not attending anymore sessions but before I make a decision I definitely NEED to know what exactly is the teaching of the Catholic Church on this.
PLEASE HELP.