J
jcamm
Guest
The mideval tradition tells us that there are some things that God cannot do. For example, he cannot make a square circle (he is bound by the principle of non-contradiction) and he cannot sin. Good enough. But, what about Jesus? Was it possible for him to sin? The fathers tell us that he had two natures - divine and human. We know that it was impossible for his divine nature to sin but, could He, as a human being, have chosen that which was contrary to His Father’s will?
I ask this question because in scripture, it often seems that Jesus speaks and acts at times from His human nature ( when he proclaims in the Garden, “not my will but Your’s be done” or when he weeps at the death of Lazarus) and at other times from His divine nature ( when he proclaims, “the Father and I are one” or when he calms the storm on the Sea of Galilee). Considering this discrepancy, it would appear that because of His human nature, it was, at times, theoretically possible for Jesus to have sinned. Am I reasoning correctly on this point? Please advise!
I ask this question because in scripture, it often seems that Jesus speaks and acts at times from His human nature ( when he proclaims in the Garden, “not my will but Your’s be done” or when he weeps at the death of Lazarus) and at other times from His divine nature ( when he proclaims, “the Father and I are one” or when he calms the storm on the Sea of Galilee). Considering this discrepancy, it would appear that because of His human nature, it was, at times, theoretically possible for Jesus to have sinned. Am I reasoning correctly on this point? Please advise!