T
Twelfth_Night
Guest
I don’t know how quite to ask this question, so I hope you’ll forgive any infelicitous phrasing.
Oftentimes, homilists and catechists will say that something Jesus did was something “no other Jew would have done.” For example, when he talked to the Samaritan woman in John 4, it is said that Jesus’s action was “unique” because Jewish men did not speak to Gentile women. Or when he multiplied the loaves and fish, the miracle is “explained away” by saying that Jesus taught the crowds – who were Jewish since they sought to make him their king afterward (John 6:14-15) – to share what they’d hidden away.
Although I know that Jesus was unique among men since he was both God and man, is it correct to distinguish him from his own people in such a manner?
Oftentimes, homilists and catechists will say that something Jesus did was something “no other Jew would have done.” For example, when he talked to the Samaritan woman in John 4, it is said that Jesus’s action was “unique” because Jewish men did not speak to Gentile women. Or when he multiplied the loaves and fish, the miracle is “explained away” by saying that Jesus taught the crowds – who were Jewish since they sought to make him their king afterward (John 6:14-15) – to share what they’d hidden away.
Although I know that Jesus was unique among men since he was both God and man, is it correct to distinguish him from his own people in such a manner?