M
marymary1975
Guest
I know , but there is a huge number of linguistic experts and historians that argue that what they meant in arameic, as there was no words to describe family relations, is that according to the flesh meant through the birth mother. Jerome makes clear that James has a blood relationship with Jesus, in consequence what makes James a “brother” is not being in the same tribe, but being Joseph’s nephew. The fact that Jerome doesn’t refer to James as brother according to the flesh, while acknowledging that James had a blood relation with Jesus, but it does it with Jude, (which is the argument used heavily by protestants and people who.want to argue that the Virgin had other children) shows that James and Jude were related in different ways, meant probably they were not siblings. However, most of the consensus seems to indicate Jude was the son of Mary’s cousin (the people that argue that Mary had a sister say that Jude was the son of Mary’s.sister) which would explain why Jerome makes.a differentiation between James and Jude.“brother of Jesus according to the flesh,” simply means that they were blood relations. Other types of brothers are such as those who are members of the Knights of Columbus (they refer to each other as “Brother Knight”). These are not brothers of the flesh.
So Thomas might be a brother of Jesus (not of the flesh) in that he looked like Jesus (hence called Dydamus, the Twin).
But James may be from the same tribe or clan, and thus be a “brother of the flesh”.
But still my point is, the protoevangelium is in direct contradiction with both the church and historians of the time.