Was mary free from sin?

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hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
 
Try these discussions from the Saints, Doctors of the Church and Sacred Scripture:

catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/general/immaculatacon.htm

catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/general/immaculate.htm

catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/general/conception.htm

catholicapologetics.info/apologetics/general/cathmary.htm

And then there is The Blessed Virgin Herself :“I Am the Immaculate Conception” Spoken at Lourdes in 1858
fisheaters.com/apparitions.html
Thanks to CatholicApologetics.info and Fisheaters.com for these links
 
hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
Note: This really belongs in the “Apologetics” board, not the “Traditional Catholicism” board, which is for discussing the traditional form of the Roman Rite (i.e. pre-1970).
Gen 3:15:
I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.
The serpent is identified in the Revelation to St. John as satan:
Rev 12:9:
And that great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, who is called the devil and Satan, who seduceth the whole world; and he was cast unto the earth, and his angels were thrown down with him.
Thus, the woman is identified by all the Fathers as the Blessed Virgin Mary because her seed is Jesus Christ, who crushes the head of the serpent by conquering the devil.

God makes this prophecy to Adam and Eve as a promise that even though they have sinned, there will be a Redeemer. He says that there will be “enmities” between the devil and “the woman” – that is, His mother Mary.

If there are “enmities” between Mary and the devil then Mary certainly could not have been at any point a slave of the devil. Thus, as sin makes us slaves to the devil:
Jn 8:34:
Jesus answered them: Amen, amen I say unto you: that whosoever committeth sin, is the servant of sin.
2Pe 2:19b:
For by whom a man is overcome, of the same also he is the slave.
Sin makes us slaves to the devil and enemies of God:
Rom 5:6-10:
For why did Christ, when as yet we were weak, according to the time, die for the ungodly? For scarce for a just man will one die; yet perhaps for a good man some one would dare to die. But God commendeth his charity towards us; because when as yet we were sinners, according to the time, Christ died for us; much more therefore, being now justified by his blood, shall we be saved from wrath through him. For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son; much more, being reconciled, shall we be saved by his life.
Thus, if sin makes us slaves to the devil and Mary was never a slave to the devil (since God established “enmities” between her and the devil), she was never subject to the effects of Adam’s sin. She was always the perfect “handmaid” (Lk 1:38,48) of the Lord and never committed the slightest sin.
Rom 5:19:
For as by the disobedience of one man [Adam], many were made sinners; so also by the obedience of one [Christ], many shall be made just.
God granted Mary to be in the same state that Eve was in before the Fall, so that just as Christ undid the disobedience of Adam by His obedience, Mary might undo the disobedience of Eve by her obedience. The parallels between Mary and Eve are quite extensive and worth contemplating but this suffices to give a basic Biblical defense of the dogma.
 
hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
Yes. It is Catholic dogma that Mary was born free from original sin, and that this was a singular and unique application of the merits won for humanity by Christ’s sacrifice. It is also the Church’s teaching that Mary was never touched by personal sin. There is biblical support for these teachings, and nothing in Scripture that is contrary to them.

Romans 3:23 (“All have sinned…”) does not contradict the teaching because it is understood that Paul is quoting Psalm 14, for its saying that “all have sinned.” He is using the term “all” in the collective sense, and not in a distributive sense. Obviously, he is not including Jesus, because we all believe Jesus did not sin. Similarly, Adam and Eve were sinless before the fall, and children below the age of reason are also sinless. Catholics believe Mary is another exception from the general rule Paul sets forth.

Genesis 3:15 shows the woman and her offspring (understood to be Mary and Jesus), to be in absolute and total enmity with Satan. As such, the woman (as with her Son) would be unsnared by sin. The woman cannot be Eve, who at this point in Genesis had already sinned.

In Luke 1:28, the angel Gabriel greets Mary with “Hail, full of grace”) The angel calls Mary “full of grace” using this as her title. Because sin diminishes grace, and because she is declared “full of grace” it is understood that she has a fullness of grace and an absence of sin in a very unique way.

Typology is also supportive of the Immaculate Conception. Consider that Mary is called the Ark of the New Covenant by early Church Fathers - insofar as she carried the Word Incarnate, just as the Old Testament Ark of the Covenant carried the Ten Commandments written by God. Comparing the treatment of the Ark with the treatment of Mary, it can be seen that Mary’s purity would be maintained all the more - not because of her own merit, but because that would make her the most fitting and suitable vessel in which to carry the Savior. You can see the comparison between the OT Ark and Mary by comparing the text in Luke 1:26, 35, 40, and 43-44, with Exodus 40:34-35; Numbers 9:15, 2 Samuel 6:11, 2 Samuel 6:9, and 2 Samuel 6:14-16.

Hope this helps.

Peace,
Robert
 
hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
“Hail Mary Full of Grace” Mary being full of Grace (Gods life within her) has no room left for sin.
 
hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
It is not only Catholics who believe Mary was sinless.

Your founder believed she was sinless!!

Protestant reformer Martin Luther said:

“… so that while the soul was being infused, **she would at the same time be cleansed from original sin **… And thus, in the very moment in which she began to live, she was without all sin.” (Martin Luther’s Works, vol 4, pg 694)

"God has formed the soul and body of the Virgin Mary full of the Holy Spirit, so that** she is without all sins**, " (ibid. vol 52, pg 39)

“. . . she is full of grace, proclaimed to be** entirely without sin**. . . . God’s grace fills her with everything good and makes her devoid of all evil. . . . God is with her, meaning that all she did or left undone is divine and the action of God in her. Moreover, God guarded and protected her from all that might be hurtful to her.” (Ref: Luther’s Works, American edition, vol. 43, p. 40, ed. H. Lehmann, Fortress, 1968)
 
It is not only Catholics who believe Mary was sinless.

Your founder believed she was sinless!!

Protestant reformer Martin Luther said:

“… so that while the soul was being infused, **she would at the same time be cleansed from original sin **… And thus, in the very moment in which she began to live, she was without all sin.” (Martin Luther’s Works, vol 4, pg 694)

"God has formed the soul and body of the Virgin Mary full of the Holy Spirit, so that** she is without all sins**, " (ibid. vol 52, pg 39)

“. . . she is full of grace, proclaimed to be** entirely without sin**. . . . God’s grace fills her with everything good and makes her devoid of all evil. . . . God is with her, meaning that all she did or left undone is divine and the action of God in her. Moreover, God guarded and protected her from all that might be hurtful to her.” (Ref: Luther’s Works, American edition, vol. 43, p. 40, ed. H. Lehmann, Fortress, 1968)
While I agree with everything you’ve said here, the OP’s profile does not say he/she is Lutheran, so what Luther thought might be irrelevent. Beyond that, the founder of the Christian faith is Christ Himself.

To the OP, Thistle here quotes Luther correctly, and I share the sentiments he expresses here. While Lutherans consider the belief in the Blessed Virgin’s perpetual sinlessness to be adiaphoron, it certainly has scriptural support in the greeting by the Angel, and furthermore is not disputed later in scripture. It seems to me the belief is not a belief about Mary, per se, but about the power and Grace of God.

Jon
 
While I agree with everything you’ve said here, the OP’s profile does not say he/she is Lutheran, so what Luther thought might be irrelevent. Beyond that, the founder of the Christian faith is Christ Himself.

To the OP, Thistle here quotes Luther correctly, and I share the sentiments he expresses here. While Lutherans consider the belief in the Blessed Virgin’s perpetual sinlessness to be adiaphoron, it certainly has scriptural support in the greeting by the Angel, and furthermore is not disputed later in scripture. It seems to me the belief is not a belief about Mary, per se, but about the power and Grace of God.

Jon
Being a Protestant myself, would you mind if I entirely disagree with* you [also along with the several Roman Catholic posts so far] about the nature of Mary, based upon the biblical evidences? Please allow me to state, in all fairness and uncategorically, that “She [Mary] was not sinless.”

*edited, added word “with”]
 
hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
And why do you believe that everything we can know about our faith comes from the Bible alone? What biblical evidence is there for that? 😉

But to answer your question…

Mary – Full of Grace (kecharitomene)

When discussing the Immaculate Conception, an implicit reference may be found in the angel’s greeting to Mary. The angel Gabriel said, “Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “full of grace” is a translation of the Greek word kecharitomene. It therefore expresses a characteristic quality of Mary.

The traditional translation, “full of grace,” is better than the one found in many recent versions of the New Testament, which give something along the lines of “highly favored daughter.” Mary was indeed a highly favored daughter of God, but the Greek implies more than that (and it never mentions the word for “daughter”). The grace given to Mary is at once permanent and of a unique kind. Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo, meaning “to fill or endow with grace.” Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates that Mary was graced in the past but with continuing effects in the present. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit. In fact, Catholics hold, it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence.

Additionally, the angel’s greeting, “Hail, Full of Grace” suggests that “Full of Grace” is being used as a title and not as a mere description. This is analogous to the Roman greeting, “Hail, Caesar” said to someone whose name was “Julius” and whose title was “Caesar”. The angel did not say, “Hail, Mary, full of grace”; this is part of OUR prayer in the rosary.

From this passage, we can find clear support for the Church’s teaching that Mary was preserved from all stain of original sin and was herself full of grace from the moment that she was immaculately conceived in her mother’s womb by a singular gift of God.
 
hi,

I have a question about mary…do catholics believe she was sinless and if so what biblical evidence is there for this? thanks

deally
Yes, definitely and yes.

Two come to mind immediately. The annunciation where the Angel proclaims that Mary is “full of grace.” And visitation where, upon Our Lady’s arrival we read:

*[39] And Mary rising up in those days, went into the hill country with haste into a city of Juda. [40] And she entered into the house of Zachary, and saluted Elizabeth.

[41] And it came to pass, that when Elizabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the infant leaped in her womb. And Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: [42] And she cried out with a loud voice, and said: Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. [43] And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? [44] For behold as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in my ears, the infant in my womb leaped for joy. [45] And blessed art thou that hast believed, because those things shall be accomplished that were spoken to thee by the Lord.

[46] And Mary said: My soul doth magnify the Lord. [47] And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. [48] Because he hath regarded the humility of his handmaid; for behold from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. [49] Because he that is mighty, hath done great things to me; and holy is his name. [50] And his mercy is from generation unto generations, to them that fear him. * – St Luke 1
 
Luke 1.

The Angel calls her “full of grace”, she has no room for sin in her life. Later in this chapter Mary says that all generations will call her blessed. One of the reasons for that is because we celebrate that God made her sinless!
 
Being a Protestant myself, would you mind if I entirely disagree with* you [also along with the several Roman Catholic posts so far] about the nature of Mary, based upon the biblical evidences? Please allow me to state, in all fairness and uncategorically, that “She [Mary] was not sinless.”

*edited, added word “with”]
Which Protestant group are you? I was a Methodist before converting and we believed in Mary being free from sin.
 
Which Protestant group are you? I was a Methodist before converting and we believed in Mary being free from sin.
Would you mind if I left out the answer to the question at this time? Not to be overly secretive, as of this moment this information will not help to determine this thread’s particular question, though let me state, I am what some have termed a “consistent protestant”.

But, for this thread, we are not discussing the “movement” I specifically belong to as this thread is more specifically about the nature of Mary and whether or not she was or was not sinless. My own statement revolving specifically towards what scripture itself has to say on the matter has been given.

Again, please allow me to state for the record the position taken by scripture and myself, by saying that, “Mary was not sinless.”
 
Not at all. Background is irrelevant to the matter. Facts and evidence are what is necessary.
 
Would you mind if I left out the answer to the question at this time? Not to be overly secretive, as of this moment this information will not help to determine this thread’s particular question, though let me state, I am what some have termed a “consistent protestant”.

But, for this thread, we are not discussing the “movement” I specifically belong to as this thread is more specifically about the nature of Mary and whether or not she was or was not sinless. My own statement revolving specifically towards what scripture itself has to say on the matter has been given.

Again, please allow me to state for the record the position taken by scripture and myself, by saying that, “Mary was not sinless.”
In post #11 above, I gave you the scriptural basis for believing in the sinlessness of Mary.

Any response? 🤷
 
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