Was Mary Predestined?

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It’s very difficult for me to explore Mary as the new Eve because Jesus is considered the second Adam. Since Jesus is tne 2nd person of the godhead, it does not seem right to compare a creature (Mary) with the creator (Jesus) in regards to the theological importance between the first Adam and second Adam. When you study Romans chapter 5 in regards to the first Adam and second Adam, Mary is never mentioned. Is there anything in Scripture which would point Mary as being the new Eve?
In Genesis 3:15, the Messiah is promised through the seed of the woman. The woman in Genesis 3:15 is Eve, right? Well Jesus was born of the woman, Mary. Compare with Galatians 4:4. Jesus born of woman. Also, on John’s Gospel, Jesus refers to Mary as “woman”! In Chapter 2 (Wedding at Cana) and again on the Cross! This was not meant as disrespect (in light of the 4th Commandment, that would be impossible), but rather in order to connect Mary to the promise in Genesis. Yes, Mary is the New Eve.
 
Romans 3… all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God. We all know Mary rejoiced in her Savior in Luke. Only those who have sinned need a Savior. Those who are without sin can be a Savior.
If “all” sinned, then that would have to include Jesus, as Jesus was fully God and fully Man. Furthermore, nowhere else in Romans can the words “all” or “none” be read as absolutes. Would it make sense for the other uses of “all” to be generalizations, at this one intance to be absolute? Of course not. In the context of Romans, the words “all” and “none” are used in a general sense. This can be shown very easily with an examination of Romans 5:12:

Therefore as sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all men sinned –

Death has not spread to all men. How do we know? Hebrews 11:5

By faith Enoch was taken up so that he should not see death; and he was not found, because God had taken him. Now before he was taken he was attested as having pleased God.

Enoch didn’t die. Death comes to all men? Not according to the Scriptures. And what about those that remain alive just prior to the last judgement? Will God smite them all dead, before calling them up to be with Him? No. Not according to the Scriptures:

For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the archangel’s call, and with the sound of the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first; then we who are alive, who are left, shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air; and so we shall always be with the Lord. (1 Thess. 4:16-17)

We really do need to get back to this point of everyone sinning. Now as a Catholic I accept the doctrine of Original Sin. I don’t know if you do or not, but if you don’t we have a serious problem. If absolutely everyone sins, you must then conclude that even babies that die just hours, or even minutes after birth have found a way to sin. Is that logical in any way, shape, or form? And what of the unborn? Aren’t they included in “everybody”? I think they do. After all, there is some kind of interaction between John the Baptist and Jesus when Mary goes to visit Elizabeth. The conclusion: in this context, “all” means “as a general rule everybody sins, but there can be exceptions.” in other words, it is feasible that Mary never sinned, not through her own power, but that being “full of grace” was protected from sin by graces poured out on her by God.
 
In Genesis 3:15, the Messiah is promised through the seed of the woman. The woman in Genesis 3:15 is Eve, right? Well Jesus was born of the woman, Mary. Compare with Galatians 4:4. Jesus born of woman. Also, on John’s Gospel, Jesus refers to Mary as “woman”! In Chapter 2 (Wedding at Cana) and again on the Cross! This was not meant as disrespect (in light of the 4th Commandment, that would be impossible), but rather in order to connect Mary to the promise in Genesis. Yes, Mary is the New Eve.
Wait a minute. That is such a tremendous jump. God became flesh through a seed of a woman. That does not make Mary the new Eve. For one, Eve came from the rib of Adam as His helpmate and wife. Now the 2nd Adam has the church as His bride. Eve is just part of that bride of Christ.
 
If “all” sinned, then that would have to include Jesus, as Jesus was fully God and fully Man. Furthermore, nowhere else in Romans can the words “all” or “none” be read as absolutes. Would it make sense for the other uses of “all” to be generalizations, at this one intance to be absolute? Of course not. In the context of Romans, the words “all” and “none” are used in a general sense. This can be shown very easily with an examination of Romans 5:12:
God the Son is God incarnate. How can you possibly compare Jesus within the context of all have sinned… since Romans 3 is about the gospel of God about His Son… the lamb of God who became sin for us (1 Cor 5:21). Much of the Catholic doctrine about Mary is not from the Holy Scriptures… and we all know that. It would be very interesting for you to try to find Scriptures to support official dogma on Mary and non-official normative beliefs about Mary within the spectrum of Catholics beliefs. Yes, I do believe in originial sin too.
 
God the Son is God incarnate. How can you possibly compare Jesus within the context of all have sinned… since Romans 3 is about the gospel of God about His Son… the lamb of God who became sin for us (1 Cor 5:21). Much of the Catholic doctrine about Mary is not from the Holy Scriptures… and we all know that. It would be very interesting for you to try to find Scriptures to support official dogma on Mary and non-official normative beliefs about Mary within the spectrum of Catholics beliefs. Yes, I do believe in originial sin too.
Unfortunately for you, the Bible is not the sole rule of faith for Christians. For it to be so, the Bible would have to say that it is, which it does not. The Bible would have to define which writings are to be included, which, again, it does not. In fact, the Bible does name a specific authority, and it is not the Bible, but the Church. What this means is that it does not matter that the Marian dogmas are not explicitly defined in the Scriptures, only that the dogmas do not violate the Scriptures, which they do not as I have already explained.
 
Unfortunately for you, the Bible is not the sole rule of faith for Christians. For it to be so, the Bible would have to say that it is, which it does not. The Bible would have to define which writings are to be included, which, again, it does not. In fact, the Bible does name a specific authority, and it is not the Bible, but the Church. What this means is that it does not matter that the Marian dogmas are not explicitly defined in the Scriptures, only that the dogmas do not violate the Scriptures, which they do not as I have already explained.
Okay, Marian dogmas and Marian beliefs that are not dogma (co-redeemer) cannot be supported in the Scriptures alone, correct?
 
Scripture alone can’t be supported by Scripture alone
We have drifted way off the thread topic of Mary being predestined. Since we agree that Marion doctrine cannot be found from Scripture alone, then the thread topic is pure speculation. Mary is to be honored within the context of being part of the redeemed creation. She is part of the body of Christ, just like all Christians who are united to Christ. She can’t be the new Eve at the same time as being part of the bride of Christ. I will rejoice together with Mary in God our Savior, for we have redeemed to the praise of His glorious grace!

And Mary said,

“My soul magnifies the Lord,
and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior,
 
We have drifted way off the thread topic of Mary being predestined. Since we agree that Marion doctrine cannot be found from Scripture alone, then the thread topic is pure speculation. Mary is to be honored within the context of being part of the redeemed creation. She is part of the body of Christ, just like all Christians who are united to Christ. She can’t be the new Eve at the same time as being part of the bride of Christ.
No the topic is not pure speculation. Why because the Church has the authority to proclaim Dogma. This is to be found in Scripture.
 
No the topic is not pure speculation. Why because the Church has the authority to proclaim Dogma. This is to be found in Scripture.
Please stay within the thread topic. This is the non-Catholic portion of Catholic Answers. There is much of Marion doctrine that is not considered dogma. Therefore, if the Marion doctrine is not supported in the Scirptures, nor is it part of Catholic dogma, then it is speculation.
 
Please stay within the thread topic. This is the non-Catholic portion of Catholic Answers. There is much of Marion doctrine that is not considered dogma. Therefore, if the Marion doctrine is not supported in the Scirptures, nor is it part of Catholic dogma, then it is speculation.
I am staying on topic. You keep challenging Marian doctrines by falling back on Sola Scriptura, and I have to keep explaining why that is not a valid argument.
 
I am staying on topic. You keep challenging Marian doctrines by falling back on Sola Scriptura, and I have to keep explaining why that is not a valid argument.
Well, before you can debate a Reformed Christian about Marian doctrine, you would have to first have him reject sola scriptura before there can be an honest discussion. To debate the Magestrium over sola scriptura requires a different thread.
 
Well, before you can debate a Reformed Christian about Marian doctrine, you would have to first have him reject sola scriptura before there can be an honest discussion. To debate the Magestrium over sola scriptura requires a different thread.
Then we are at an impasse, if only because you hold Catholics to an self-refuting standard.
 
Then we are at an impasse, if only because you hold Catholics to an self-refuting standard.
Catholic Christians have a right to worship God according to their conscience. I don’t consider official Marian doctrines to be a gospel issue. It is my understanding that Mary as co-redeemer is not Catholic dogma, correct?
 
Catholic Christians have a right to worship God according to their conscience. I don’t consider official Marian doctrines to be a gospel issue. It is my understanding that Mary as co-redeemer is not Catholic dogma, correct?
Not yet. But that does not mean that we can disregard her role. We should defer to the teachings of the Church, even the ones that have not been infallibly defined.
 
Not yet. But that does not mean that we can disregard her role. We should defer to the teachings of the Church, even the ones that have not been infallibly defined.
Do you consider Mary as your co-reedmer with Christ?
 
Do you consider Mary as your co-reedmer with Christ?
Yes. I do, however need to explain what that means, or you are going to accuse me of all kinds of things. Jesus Christ is sufficient. He did not need Mary to participate in the suffering, but he chose to allow her to participate. Here is an analogy (A can’t take credit for it, it comes from Rosalind Moss): Imagine a mother is at home with her young daughter. It is nap time for the daughter, and she sets the toddler down for a nap. Then mom decides to bake a cake for her husband. Well, as she is getting the ingredients out, the daughter hears and comes out of the bedroom. Seeing that mom is getting ready to make something, she asks, “Can I help, Mommy?” Of course the mother allows her daughter to help. Mom measured things out and the daughter will put them in the bowl, the daughter will hold on to the spoon as Mom mixes. The daughter licks the bowl. After dinner, they are eating cake and the father comments on how good it is. The daughter says “I helped make it, Daddy!” He replies “You did?” And he finishes the cake. Some questions: Was the mother alone sufficient in making the cake? Yes she was. Did the daughter help? Yes she did. Did it add something to the cake for the father? Yes it did. The same is true with Mary. She was not needed, because Christ is sufficient, but since he allowed her to participate in the suffering it adds a richness, a depth, to our faith that would not be there if she was not involved.
 
Originally Posted by 2nd Adam
Do you consider Mary as your co-reedmer with Christ?
Yes. I do, however need to explain what that means, or you are going to accuse me of all kinds of things. Jesus Christ is sufficient. He did not need Mary to participate in the suffering, but he chose to allow her to participate. Here is an analogy (A can’t take credit for it, it comes from Rosalind Moss): Imagine a mother is at home with her young daughter. It is nap time for the daughter, and she sets the toddler down for a nap. Then mom decides to bake a cake for her husband. Well, as she is getting the ingredients out, the daughter hears and comes out of the bedroom. Seeing that mom is getting ready to make something, she asks, “Can I help, Mommy?” Of course the mother allows her daughter to help. Mom measured things out and the daughter will put them in the bowl, the daughter will hold on to the spoon as Mom mixes. The daughter licks the bowl. After dinner, they are eating cake and the father comments on how good it is. The daughter says “I helped make it, Daddy!” He replies “You did?” And he finishes the cake. Some questions: Was the mother alone sufficient in making the cake? Yes she was. Did the daughter help? Yes she did. Did it add something to the cake for the father? Yes it did. The same is true with Mary. She was not needed, because Christ is sufficient, but since he allowed her to participate in the suffering it adds a richness, a depth, to our faith that would not be there if she was not involved.
Thanks for the explanation. However, all God’s children are co-laborers in God’s redemptive history. God doesn’t need us to help, but He allows all of us (his adopted children) to participate just like Mary. She has her assigned role, just like Peter, James, John, Paul… and each one of us. However, we… like Mary are not co-redeemers… because Mary did not live and die on our behalf in any way like what Christ has done on our behalf. Please consider this passage:

The Ministry of Reconciliation

Therefore, knowing the fear of the Lord, we persuade others. But what we are is known to God, and I hope it is known also to your conscience. We are not commending ourselves to you again but giving you cause to boast about us, so that you may be able to answer those who boast about outward appearance and not about what is in the heart. For if we are beside ourselves, it is for God; if we are in our right mind, it is for you. For the love of Christ controls us, because we have concluded this: that one has died for all, therefore all have died; and he died for all, that those who live might no longer live for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.

From now on, therefore, we regard no one according to the flesh. Even though we once regarded Christ according to the flesh, we regard him thus no longer. Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The old has passed away; behold, the new has come. All this is from God, who through Christ reconciled us to himself and gave us the ministry of reconciliation; that is, in Christ God was reconciling the world to himself, not counting their trespasses against them, and entrusting to us the message of reconciliation. Therefore, we are ambassadors for Christ, God making his appeal through us. We implore you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God. 21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God. 2 Cor 5

Please try to explain how Mary is your co-redeemer in regards to redemption and atonement.
 
Mary suffered an intercedes for us
Well, we know that is a Catholic teaching. We know that we are called to intercede for each other through petition and prayer. All true Christians suffer for Christ’s sake and the joy of it. So, what you stated is not unique to only Mary, but is similar to all true Christians. Since you consider Mary to be a co-redeemer, in what particular specific way does she redeem you in a theological sense within the doctrines of redemption and atonement. Did Mary shed her blood and die for you in any sense of the atonement?

Philippians 1:29
For it has been granted to you that for the sake of Christ you should not only believe in him but also suffer for his sake,

I appeal to you, brothers, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that all of you agree, and that there be no divisions among you, but that you be united in the same mind and the same judgment. For it has been reported to me by Chloe’s people that there is quarreling among you, my brothers. What I mean is that each one of you says, “I follow Paul,” or “I follow Apollos,” or “I follow Cephas,” or “I follow Christ.” Is Christ divided? Was Paul (Mary) crucified for you? - 1 Cor 1
 
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