Was Mary Sinless? Fav Arguments

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are you aware that Jesus comes from a bloodline of sinners? David ,committed adultery,murdered a man, there is a prostitute in there,in the bloodline. Although He was sinless , how could Mary claim sinless? She confesses her need of a Savior .
 
are you aware that Jesus comes from a bloodline of sinners? David ,committed adultery,murdered a man, there is a prostitute in there,in the bloodline. Although He was sinless , how could Mary claim sinless? She confesses her need of a Savior .
This was explained in post 5. Short of divine intervention, she could not have had Christ’s merit applied to her in advance. The question is whether or not there is evidence in divine revelation for this dogma. Catholics say yes. Here is more thorough reading (by no means an exhaustive list).

Was Mary Born without Sin?
How the cherubim witness to Mary’s Immaculate Conception
Catholic Answers tract on the IC
Why Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception (this one includes answers to several objections also)
The Immaculate Conception of the Mother of God by Juniper Carol

It might be interesting to note, that of all the objections and rejections he had of Catholic doctrine, Martin Luther still believed Mary’s Immaculate Conception even after he split with the Church.
 
For our Protestant friends on this thread who struggle to understand either why Catholics believe this doctrine or even just why it is important to us, the best way to delve deeper is to read what the Magisterium (the teaching authority) of the Church says on the issue. I can think of no document better, on this subject, than Pope Pius IX 1854 Encyclical Ineffabilis Deus in which Pius dogmatically (and infallibly) define the dogma.

It’s a long document (worth reading in its entirety), so I’ve broken it down a bit, cut some of the flowery 19th c. prose, and highlighted the more important sections on my blog over the last two days.

If you are interested you might read it there.

PART ONE

PART TWO

If you decide to do so and have any questions, please ask - I can answer any question in the combox over there or on this thread (where you’ll also have the (name removed by moderator)ut of other Catholics who can answer your question).

God bless.
 
For our Protestant friends on this thread who struggle to understand either why Catholics believe this doctrine or even just why it is important to us, the best way to delve deeper is to read what the Magisterium (the teaching authority) of the Church says on the issue. I can think of no document better, on this subject, than Pope Pius IX 1854 Encyclical Ineffabilis Deus in which Pius dogmatically (and infallibly) define the dogma.

It’s a long document (worth reading in its entirety), so I’ve broken it down a bit, cut some of the flowery 19th c. prose, and highlighted the more important sections on my blog over the last two days.

If you are interested you might read it there.

PART ONE

PART TWO

If you decide to do so and have any questions, please ask - I can answer any question in the combox over there or on this thread (where you’ll also have the (name removed by moderator)ut of other Catholics who can answer your question).

God bless.
Thank you for taking this discussion to some of the central documents and arguments that are connected with it. This discussion was devolving from a discussion of the truth of the doctrine and its sources in Scripture and Tradition to a case of undergrad theological musings about its relevance. As an original participant, I thank you for taking it to a higher level.
 
The Catholic dogma of the Immaculate Conception refers to the Virgin Mary conceived without the stain of original sin. This is the defining text from the papal encyclical Ineffabilis Deus from 1854:

We declare, pronounce, and define that the doctrine which holds that the most Blessed Virgin Mary, in the first instance of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege granted by Almighty God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Savior of the human race, was preserved free from all stain of original sin, is a doctrine revealed by God and therefore to be believed firmly and constantly by all the faithful.
 
where is the infallible doctrine defined in Scripture? through the saying, “your womb is blessed”? or she has been “full of Grace” is that it?
 
where is the infallible doctrine defined in Scripture? through the saying, “your womb is blessed”? or she has been “full of Grace” is that it?
First answer me this - Where is the infallible doctrine that everything must be explicitly defined in Scripture taught in Scripture?

If you read my blog post - here - you’ll see how we can know Mary was sinless from conception from Scripture.
 
I don’t buy this argument, why is she dead? if she was sinless she would still be alive. Scripture nowhere states she was taken up alive by God, she died, a sinner, in need of a Savior.
 
I don’t buy this argument, why is she dead? if she was sinless she would still be alive. Scripture nowhere states she was taken up alive by God, she died, a sinner, in need of a Savior.
Hopefully what I’m writing here is accurate - maybe other Catholics can give a correction, if needed.

Jesus was also sinless, and he ascended (with His body) into Heaven by His own power.
According to tradition (writings of early Christans and Church Fathers), the place where Mary had been laid to rest after she died was found empty - and she was gone. And lillies were found to have suddenly growing outside of the place where she had lain. It was assumed that she ascended into Heaven also. But not of her own power, but by the power of God.

Scripture also doesn’t give an account of what happened to all of Jesus’ Apostles - how they all died. Well, tradition does say how they met their end - all were martyred for the Faith, except for John. In those days, not everything important had to be written. Tradition was also considered a way to pass on important things.

Keep in mind that no where in the Bible does Jesus tell the Apostles to write anything down. Nor does Jesus Himself write anything down. The Apostles did, however, begin to write things down because they saw that error was being taught in some places, and they saw the need to write an accurate account of what they witnessed. They didn’t leave an account of everything, though. They just didn’t think that way.
 
I don’t buy this argument, why is she dead? if she was sinless she would still be alive. Scripture nowhere states she was taken up alive by God, she died, a sinner, in need of a Savior.
I see you’ve decided not to answer my question. Why?
 
where is the infallible doctrine defined in Scripture? through the saying, “your womb is blessed”? or she has been “full of Grace” is that it?
How about bad tree can not produce good fruit? If Jesus is considered good fruit, therefore the tree must be considered good too.
 
But Jesus wasn’t born at all of natural means, while Mary was. So anything that could be applied to Mary could also be applied to Jesus. “Jesus wouldn’t be in an unclean womb because of sin, but Mary was and yet did not inherit sin either.” I believe it’s a logical fallacy.
In Catholic theology original sin is regarded as the general state of sinfulness, that is the absence of sanctity and perfect charity, into which all human beings are born. According to the Catechism of the Catholic Church, original sin is the natural state “of deprivation of the original holiness and justice” we inherit as descendants of Adam and Eve. It is a sin which is contracted by all human beings by natural propagation, not a sin committed by them. Thus original sin does not entail any personal responsibility or guilt on our part as human beings. We do not inherit any “original guilt” as descendants of Adam which Calvin believed we do. Adam’s particular sin is his own personal sin which he committed. Because original sin is a state or condition of our human nature and not a sinful act itself on our part, original sin “does not take on the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants”. We are all simply implicated in Adam’s sin, including Mary. And because God did not hold Mary personally responsible for the sin of Adam and Eve, He could - and did - in His divine mercy, without negating His divine justice, preserve Mary immune from the stain of original sin by a “singular grace and privilege in view of the merits of Christ”. Without Divine intervention, Mary would have been conceived in the state of deprivation of the original holiness and justice, since she was a human being and not a Divine Person in the flesh like her Son.

PAX
:heaven:
 
where is the infallible doctrine defined in Scripture? through the saying, “your womb is blessed”? or she has been “full of Grace” is that it?
There are tons of ways Scripture shows us that Mary was concieved without sin.

But let me point out this: Mary’s sinlessness was NOT necessary. God could have chosen a sinful woman to bear His son.

But instead God gave this as a free gift.

Let me show you one of the ways we know Mary was with out sin:

Let’s start with the question: What does “emnity” mean? According to dictionary.com it means ‘deep seeded hatred’ and ‘to be enemies’. According to one anti-Catholic source it means to be completely opposite and seperate from each other.

Are we, humans, completely seperate from sin and the devil? We’d like to say ‘yes’ but we have to remember that we still sin. So we cannot say we are completely seperate from satan.

What does Scripture say about Christ? Scripture says that Christ and Satan will have “enmity” between them. Does this make sense? Absolutely.

What does this have to do with Mary? In the same Scripture where it says that Christ and Satan will have “enmity” between them, it ALSO says that MARY and Satan will have “enmity” between them (Gen 3:15).

So, again, could Mary have had any sin but still have “enmity” between her and Satan?

Also we see in Revelations that Satan attempts to get at Mary (the woman) but Mary was taken “out of the serpant’s reach” (Rev 12:14).

Are we sinners “out of the serpant’s reach”? If we were honest, we’d have to say no.

On top of this, Scripture show that Mary is the New Eve, The New Ark of the Covenant as well as other things. See: catholic.com/radio/shows/mary-the-new-eve-4624
catholic.com/magazine/articles/mary-the-ark-of-the-new-covenant

As the New Eve was created with out sin, could the New Eve be any different?

As R.C. Sproul put it, the Ark was so holy that no sinful man could touch it. Is the New Ark any different?

Just food for thought.
God Bless you in your journey of Faith, :signofcross:
Poor Knight for Christ and His Church
 
As the New Eve was created without sin, could the New Eve be any different?
The New Eve could be different only by remaining sinless - unlike the biological mother of the human race. Elizabeth pronounced Mary to be “most blessed among women” (Lk 1:42), who would include Eve, and not only because she conceived and bore Jesus instead of Cain (the serpent’s seed) as her firstborn Son. Rather she was more blessed for having heard the word of God and kept it (cf. Lk 11:28). Certainly the woman spoken of in Genesis 3:15 is the new Eve, and her offspring is the new Adam, both of whom are at enmity with the devil.

PAX
:heaven:
 
Former Protestant in RCIA here.

What convinced me were the arguments of Mary as New Eve, Ark of the New Covenant, and what I call the “Honor Argument”.

Basically, we are commanded in the 4th Commandment to honor our father and mother. Jesus honored His father, God the Father, by being perfectly obedient to His will. How did He honor His mother? By redeeming her in a special way.

This is also a good link. Catholic.com was so incredibly important in me coming to the Church.
 
As a Protestant ,some of the stuff about Mary bothers me. But what I know about Original Sin, and especially your explanation of it, I could probably go along with the Immaculate Conception. (Though I do wonder if Jesus is “fully God & fully Man,” how can He be fully man if His human nature was free of Original Sin, when no one else’s is?) But that’s a different problem.
As I understand it, the reason that Mary was assumed into heaven is that she was sinless when she died! That’s a lot different than Original Sin. Supposedly Mary was also Immaculate when she died, and therefore belonged in heaven rather than in the grave. And she’s not just a citizen of heaven, or a saint. She’s the Queen of heaven! That’s a lot more than a specially chosen woman. That’s closer to a goddess! Obviously, that’s not Catholic doctrine. But do the people praying to rather than withher believe? So was she sinless when she died? And if so, doesn’t it make her more than human?
 
Yes. But that didn’t make Mary a sinner.
Hmm… If it were so, then it would make Mary a sinner as well and we won’t be celebrating the Feast of the Immaculate Conception.

What I see though is like this:
Jesus (God, sinless) ← Mary (human, sinless) ← St. Anne (human, sinless) ← ?
 
Why don’t you just quote Mary? I think she knows more about her life and what her need was in a Savior. Nothing is ever mentioned about her being sinless, reading anything into the scripture other than what it says is just… I don’t want to go there. It’s the flesh of mankind that makes Jesus approachable, that’s why God had to have flesh, if you were to approach God as they did with the Ark and touch it, you died. All Deity, you touch, you die, All Deity , all Flesh you can approach. All mankind is born of a woman, that is the only requirement. Jesus was born of a woman, who confessed her need of a Savior. Sinless, would make Mary deity, we could have sacrificed her on the cross for mankind and been done with the sin problem. Two perfect sacrifices? Makes no sense to me. Somebody screwed up in the plan of salvation then. He’s not the Perfect God if He has to sinless lives, and kills one and lets the other live. Why did she die? Perhaps, the wages of sin is death?
From listening to others: All non believers are afraid that the Catholic Church chooses to make Mary a God. The Catholic Church does not. What it does is make Mary our Greatest Saint. When we pray the Rosary we pray to God but asking Mary to pray with us on our behalf. It is the most powerful prayer, aside from the Mass, that man can put forth to God. Why? Because Mary like an angel is in the “Face of God” way more than anyone else. I truly believe She is all that the Church says she is. Why then quibble about her sins, her celibacy after Jesus, her assumption into heaven? Just believe and pray. God hears you and the more you believe the more he loves you.
 
Why don’t you just quote Mary? I think she knows more about her life and what her need was in a Savior. Nothing is ever mentioned about her being sinless, reading anything into the scripture other than what it says is just… I don’t want to go there. It’s the flesh of mankind that makes Jesus approachable, that’s why God had to have flesh, if you were to approach God as they did with the Ark and touch it, you died. All Deity, you touch, you die, All Deity , all Flesh you can approach. All mankind is born of a woman, that is the only requirement. Jesus was born of a woman, who confessed her need of a Savior. Sinless, would make Mary deity, we could have sacrificed her on the cross for mankind and been done with the sin problem. Two perfect sacrifices? Makes no sense to me. Somebody screwed up in the plan of salvation then. He’s not the Perfect God if He has to sinless lives, and kills one and lets the other live. Why did she die? Perhaps, the wages of sin is death?
Where do you get, *“Sinless, would make Mary deity, we could have sacrificed her on the cross for mankind and been done with the sin problem.” *Adam and Eve were created sinless. Were they also deity. Let’s face it, being created sinless only makes one sinless. Nothing more, nothing less. Also you have a defective understanding of Catholic teaching on the Blessed Virgin. This is what you get when you follow protestant ministers who themselves are ignorant of Catholic doctrine. When the blind lead the blind both fall into the pit.

See if this makes sense to you. Scripture says that nothing unclean will enter heaven. God punished those who would desecrate the Ark of the Covenant. Only the High priest could enter the holy of holies and then only on one day of the year. From all of this do you get the idea that sin and God cannot coexist together? So how could God spend nine months in the womb of a sinner?

Further more scripture tells us that we can approach God and ask for blessings and just as our earthly fathers will give good things to their children so will God give good things to his. So God will not give us a stone when we ask for bread. God will not give us a serpent when we ask for a fish. God will give us, His sinful children, bread when we ask for it and a fish as well but according to you God gives His only begotten Son who is sinless, a stone or a serpent for a mother. And recall that Jesus did his atonement for sin on the cross, not in the womb so this is not part of His redemptive sacrifice.

In addition, why does the angel address Mary not by name but by a quality she possesses? The angel said, “Hail, full of grace…” How could Mary be “full of Grace” before the age of grace began? Did the angel lie? The age of grace had not commenced yet because Jesus had not been born yet let alone crucified on the cross. So please answer these questions or better yet get your pastor to answer them. My guess is he will duck the issue. Every protestant minister I have come across has ducked the issue. Was Mary concieved without sin? Yep! God does not do sloppy work as protestants portray.
 
I recently wrote a blog detailing a few of my favorite arguments for the Immaculate Conception. If interested, you can read the post Here:[

Was Mary Born without Sin?](Nathan Barontini's Blog: Was Mary Born without Sin?)

I was wondering, what are some of your favorite arguments for this dogma? Which ones have you found to be the most useful when talking to Protestants?
The Eastern Church also agrees that Mary was sinless all of her life. However the Eastern Church tends to say it was at the Annunciation that Mary was cleansed with this privilege Grace from God. For me I sense the time for her to receive this Grace didn’t matter since God was capable of doing this either at the Annunciation or at the Conception of Mary or at any other time. The time of her Conception though would be better since it would give more time for Mary to grow to become this great Saint and Handmaiden for the Lord. This great head start in Mary would be to God’s advantage as well as to Mary as He was preparing her for the greatest vocation any human would have. She was to become the Mother of God and to be the greatest Saint ever. However the Dogma the Catholic Church which it puts out does not have any Eastern (name removed by moderator)ut at all. I suspect this is why the Eastern Orthodox Church rejects this doctrine on a principal of the way it is worded.

An Eastern (name removed by moderator)ut to this doctrine would be most helpful as it may clarify what exactly was the Grace that God had given to Mary. I suspect there is more to this teaching than meets the eye. For me it didn’t matter too much about Original Sin since the Eastern Church does not give this heavier sentence on Original Sin as did her Western Church’s brothers and sisters. The Eastern Church does not believe that Adam and Eve had fallen from such a great height but they had fallen from their lowest level of sanctity. The point the Eastern Church was making was that mankind were created in order to become saints so that whatever grace was in Adam and Eve would have been at their lowest level rather than their highest level.

This difference from the Eastern Church enabled them to see God as a more merciful God than the way the Western Church would see at least from the beginning of their formation as Churches. I tend to acknowledge that the Eastern Church which should have a say in matters of doctrine pertaining to Jesus and to Mary can also contribute to this dogma of the Immaculate Conception which only Rome had participated in. The Eastern voice should also be heard.

It is my conviction that Mary received a certain privilege grace at her Conception. I agree with Rome on this. But I sense something lacking in the teaching which Rome had proposed. This lack of what may complete this teaching can be found within the Eastern Church. It is to my understanding that Mary received from the first moment of her Conception the fullness of the Holy Spirit which means she received this fullness in its reception as great as any human being could have received. This fullness was much like our Baptism but greater. In our Baptism we only receive a partial Deposit of the Holy Spirit not in its fullness. Mary however received this Fullness all at once and even more. It is like when one dies and receives all the power, love and grace which you can receive from God to be in Heaven. Jesus said that from this Grace no one will be able to take this from you.

When you die you are enveloped so much within this degree of love and happiness that you forget everything and think only of the happiness of God. This grace given for you no one would be able to take it away from you including yourself. This is what I believe God had given to Mary. She was so inflamed with this great joy and happiness that it was certain no one will be able to take it away from her. This is why she did not sin. It is the same with us after we die. We do not sin either because in us will be this power, love and grace that will erupt in us to think only of our Lord and to this eternal happiness He has given to us.
 
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