In the Old Testament, Moses sees an Egyptian man beating a slave. In order to make him stop, Moses kills the Egyptian. On one hand, the bible says thou shall not kill. On the other hand, if Moses did not do this than it is possible the man might have beaten the slave to death (as well as other slaves in he future).
Here is the text of the encounter: One day, when Moses had grown up, he went out to his people and looked on their burdens; and he saw an Egyptian beating a Hebrew, one of his people. He looked this way and that, and seeing no one he killed the Egyptian and hid him in the sand. When he went out the next day, behold, two Hebrews were struggling together; and he said to the man that did the wrong, “Why do you strike your fellow?” He answered, “Who made you a prince and a judge over us? Do you mean to kill me as you killed the Egyptian?” Then Moses was afraid, and thought, “Surely the thing is known.” When Pharaoh heard of it, he sought to kill Moses. But Moses fled from Pharaoh, and stayed in the land of Mid’ian. (Exodus 2:11-15) One thought that comes to mind is this: according to Church doctrine, “Someone who defends his life is not guilty of murder even if he is forced to deal his aggressor a lethal blow.] [But if] a man in self-defense uses more than necessary violence, it will be unlawful.” (CCC 2264)
I think that can be extrapolated to when you are defending another person who is in legitimate need of help. Therefore, it seems to follow that Moses’ action could be justified, IF lethal force was necessary to stop the aggressor. If not, then it would appear that this action was not justified.
I don’t think the text by itself gives us sufficient data to determine how necessary lethal force was. If I had to guess, I would guess that it was, because I think that if he tried to tackle the man or merely knock him out, he still would have beat his slave later.
According to St. Clement of Alexandria, writing in 195 A.D., “[For Moses] there was just cause of hostilities [against the Egyptians]. The Hebrews came as suppliants to the Egyptians on account of famine; and they, reducing their guests to slavery, compelled them to serve them after the manner of captives, giving them no recompense.” “[Therefore,] as may be alleged is done in war, [the Israelites] thought it proper [to] exercise…the rights of conquerors…[against] their enemies, as those who have gained the day do from those who are worsted.” (Stromata Book 1 Chapter 23)
St. Clement appears to be justifying the rebellion of the Hebrews against the Egyptians by the Church’s traditional doctrine of just war, in what is an extraordinarily early example of just-war analysis. And it may be possible to consider Moses’ action against the Egyptian man under that light.
Let me know if that is helpful. God bless!
