O
OlPet
Guest
I was discussing with my brother-in-law the Last Supper. I was comparing the New Testament Passover Seder with the original Passover and its implications when he pointed out to me that in the Gospel of John, he has the Last Supper on the day before Passover. How do we explain this when the Synoptics clearly state the Last Supper was a Passover meal, but John clearly says it was on the day before the feast?