Yes, there were Arians who affirmed the divinity, but a derived divinity. They did believe in the co-essentialness of Father and Son, but that the essence was given to a created being, albeit created before time.
No, that is incorrect. The divine nature cannot be shared with created beings. The Arians and Nicene Christians all agreed upon that point (that was in fact part of the Arian and especially the Eunomian argument against Nicene Christianity). The homoiousians used the homoiousian formula in order to stress that the Word, while a creature, was not a creature like any other creature, putting the word in a middle position between the uncreated Father and the world. But still, their use of the term homoiousion as opposed to homoousion did not at all imply a consubstantial sharing with the Father like the homoousian formulation does.
Then why did they accept the Baptism of the “Arians?” I am trying to theorize a reason, but the only response you have given is to assume I am saying the Arians were not heretics.
That is exactly what you seem to have been implying, that confessions using the term homoiousion did not invalidate baptisms because they could still be interpreted as meaning that the Word was divine. But this does not hold, because even deified saints can be called divine and gods (by grace) in Greek, and yet it would still be an equally disastrous trinitarian heresy to call the word divine and god in this sense, as it would be to deny that the Word is divine at all. There is no qualitative difference, in this respect, because both formulations deny that the Word of God is uncreated and God in the sense of being the One God to Whom worship is due.
Why? So you can attach another name to the rhetoric? Address my rhetoric. I don’t understand your constant request for other sources.
Because there is nothing more frustrating than seeing unsubstantiated opinions being presented as factual. If one is going to make assertions, he should be prepared to back them up with at least some primary sources, although secondary sources are far better for a medium like a forum, because they are peer-reviewed.
Lex credendi, lex orandi. I’m glad you are (somewhat) conceding my point.
I am not conceding anything. Baptisms with invalid form cannot be considered to be valid, even out of economy. This is basic sacramental theology, something that is held in common between Orthodoxy and Catholicism, that sacraments with invalid form are not valid, and cannot simply be declared to be valid. Beer cannot be used for the Eucharist, nor can men be validly baptized into the death of Jesus, no matter what the theological intent for doing so might be.
I don’t know why people are arguing that the reason the Mormon baptism is rejected is because it is not Trinitarian. From reading the original journalistic source (L’osservatore Romano), the rationale was because the Mormon conception of the Persons is not even Christian (God the Father being a glorified man, like Jesus). The conception of the Persons of course directly affects the Triadology. But it is not specifically their understanding of the Trinity, but rather their understanding of the Persons, which makes their Baptism devoid of “the intention of the Catholic Church.”
That is the point I have been trying to make. Having a defective Trinitarian theology is not in itself automatically grounds for declaring the baptism of a group to be invalid (as we can see with the Arians). Having, however, improper intent (at least for Roman Catholics), is grounds for declaring the baptism of a group to be invalid, and that is the reason why Mormon baptisms are defective, because Mormons do not intend to give the same baptism as the Roman Catholic Church gives, which would be unlike the Arians, who despite blaspheming the Word by calling Him a creature, still intended to confer the same baptism and burial with Christ for the remission of sins as the Nicene Christians did.