Was the Vatican ruling against Mormon baptisms unprecendented?

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This was stated very early on, but here we go again.

“While the Mormon baptismal rite refers to the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, Mormon beliefs about the identity of the three persons is so different from Catholic and mainline Christian belief that “one cannot even consider this doctrine to be a heresy arising from a false understanding of Christian doctrine,” said a Vatican explanation of the ruling.”

Source

Problem solved.
 
They may have been a heretical Christian group with incorrect understanding of the Trinity but they did not create their own church. They saw themselves as, and were members of the Catholic church and intended with the baptisms they performed to do what The Catholic church believes about baptism. Arians were individual Catholics who although they were wrong in belief still saw themselves as members of and aligned with the church. Churches are a different animal altogether, a church has it’s own teachings, and this is where alignment with Catholic understanding is important. If a church has an understanding 180 out from the Catholic understanding it’s ministers can not possibly be doing what the Catholic church intends in regards to baptism.
Some Arians created parallel churches, upon being expelled from the local ones.
 
This was stated very early on, but here we go again.

“While the Mormon baptismal rite refers to the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, Mormon beliefs about the identity of the three persons is so different from Catholic and mainline Christian belief that “one cannot even consider this doctrine to be a heresy arising from a false understanding of Christian doctrine,” said a Vatican explanation of the ruling.”

Source

Problem solved.
I also like the official response to the question. Brief and to the point
 
Some Arians created parallel churches, upon being expelled from the local ones.
Aramis,

I think you may have explained ‘intent’ in most cases. As long as a ‘christian church’ sets up a parallel church that does not omit the proper matter and form, then the intention is in accordance with the Roman Catholic church. An atheist who baptizes someone with proper matter and form in an emergency is not setting up a parallel church.

The only exceptions that we have in the modern era are Christadelphians and the LDS.

The Christadelphians are monotheists, but do not believe in the pre-existence of Jesus Christ as Messiah, Son of God. As far as I know, they are the **only **parallel ‘Christian church’ that uses proper matter and form, but denies the pre-existence of Jesus Christ.

As far as I know, the LDS are the only parallel ‘Christian church’ which uses the proper matter and form, but are polytheists.

At the present time, it seems that in order to be a valid parallel Christian church, such a church must use the proper matter and form, and believe in the pre-existence of Jesus Christ, and be monotheistic.

God’s peace

micah
 
This is sensible. Thanks.

Specifically, how does what they believe about Jesus Christ inform their intention to “do what the Church does”? I know next to nothing about the Christadelphians.

I think it’s more likely that the Catholic Church simply didn’t have an opinion one way or the other on LDS baptisms until it was brought to their attention. The Church after all cannot rule on every possible group until attention is brought to them. This is precisely why heresy usually manifests itself for a little while until an Ecumenical Council is called to combat it, or the Vatican issues definitive statements against them.

I’m having trouble understanding how belief that Jesus Christ pre-existed as the Son of God is in of itself intent. This seems like a really strange use of the word intention. We intend to do things, not believe things. I may intend to wash away Original Sin, intend to wash away Particular Sin, and intend to initiate a person into the Body of Christ through baptism, all the while believing wrong things about Jesus Christ. Belief can inform intent, of course, but then it behooves us to explicitly state how proper intention arises from that erroneous belief.

Did the Vatican actually change a ruling? I don’t think so. It seems more likely that the Church went from having no opinion whatsoever to having a definitive opinion, rather than ruling that LDS baptisms are, in fact, valid, then switching their decision later on. It was probably the case in the past that the validity of LDS baptism was dealt with by individual Bishops (none of whom are infallible alone) on a case-by-case basis. Some likely thought it valid and ushered the ex-LDS catechumen straight to Confession, while others either baptized them or gave them conditional ones. I can’t seem to find any information on the web one way or the other.
No they did not legally ‘change’ a ruling. What they changed was the fact that Mormon baptisms were presumed to be valid for one and a half centuries. In addition, I do not think U.S. bishops had the authority to presume otherwise.

Here is part of what Fr. Ladaria has written regarding the history that led to the decision in 2001. (my underlining)

**Taking into account this deeply-rooted practice of the Church, applied without any doubt as to the multiplicity of non-Catholic Christian communities emerging from the so-called Reform of the 16th century, it is easily understood that when there appeared in the United States the religious movement of Joseph Smith around 1830, in which the matter and the words of the form of Baptism were correctly utilized, this Baptism was considered valid, analogously to the Baptism of so many other non-Catholic ecclesial communities. Joseph Smith and Oliver Cowdery, according to their teaching, received the priesthood of Aaron in 1829. Given the circumstances of the Church in the United States in the 19th century and the means of social communication at that time, even though the new religious movement gained a considerable number of followers, the knowledge that ecclesiastical authorities could have had of the doctrinal errors that were professed in this new group was necessarily very limited throughout the entire century. For the practical cases that emerged there was applied the response of the Holy Office of 9 September 1868 given for the Christian communities of Japan which had remained isolated and without priests from the time of the persecution at the beginning of the 17th century. According to this response: 1) those persons about whom there was doubt whether they were validly baptized should be considered Christians; 2) this Baptism should be considered valid with regard to the validity of marriage (Gasparri, Fontes, IV, n. 1007).

Current doubts about the validity of Mormon baptism

In the 20th century, the Catholic Church became more aware of the Trinitarian errors which the teaching proposed by Smith contained, though he used the traditional terms, and therefore more and more doubts spread about the validity of the Baptism conferred by the Mormons, in spite of the fact that the form, as far as the substance of the terminology goes, coincided with that used by the Church. As a result, almost imperceptibly there developed difference of practice, insofar as those who had a certain personal knowledge of the teaching of the Mormons considered their Baptism invalid, while the common practice continued of applying the traditional principle of the presumption in favour of the validity of such Baptism, since there was no official norm in this regard. In recent years, as a result of a request from the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, the Bishops’ Conference of the United States undertook a detailed study of this delicate issue with the hope of coming to a definitive conclusion. On its part the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith undertook a new examination of the material that came from the United States and thus was able to resolve the proposed question.

What are the reasons which now led to this negative position regarding the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, which seems different from the position of the Catholic Church throughout the centuries?

Huge divergence on Trinity and baptism invalidates the intention of the Mormon minister of baptism and of the one to be baptized**

doctrinafidei.va/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20010605_battesimo_mormoni-ladaria_en.html

For whatever reason, it took the Roman Catholic church all of the 20th century to come to this conclusion. Therefore, it was unprecedented to take a position ‘which seems different from the position of the Catholic Church throughout the centuries’.

God’s peace

micah.
 
And why is that? What about LDS intent makes it improper?
They don’t intend to incorporate the person being baptized into the “universal” church, all other churches are apostate in their view and they do not intend for their baptism to join members to an apostate church. What is so hard to understand about this?
 
xixxvmcm85,

In the case of emergency baptisms** there is no way to prove that an atheist had proper intent**, or knew what proper intent is, even if such a person was to baptize using the correct matter and form. It seems then, the Roman Catholic church assumes that an atheist has proper intent based on the assumption that the atheist’s intent in ministering baptism was sanctified by the use of water and by the use of the Trinitarian formula.
Exactly! This is why the Catholic Church usually performs a conditional baptism following an emergency baptism if the patient survives.
 
Rebecca,

Yes, Simon Magus was not ready for baptism. This is why canons regarding preparation and renunciation were adopted, so that individuals like Simon Magus would not be baptized in the first place.

I can appreciate and welcome the discernment and preparation that RICA teams minister when preparing someone** for baptism.**. If someone who desires to enter the Roman Catholic church who has a ‘valid’ baptism from a Christian community, is such discernment and preparation made eventhough they will not be re-baptized?

Secondly, this same document of the Apostolic Constitutions says that bishops, presbyters or deacons who have gravely sinned should be deprived of their ecclesiastical authority.

Thirdly, Mormons are heretical in their doctrine. This might be the whole issue of why the Vatican has done something unprecedented in determining that they had to be re-baptized. They discerned that Mormons had been allowed to enter the Roman Catholic church, and there was something amiss. They might have discerned that they needed the prayer of exorcism in a formal baptism that is not given during a conditional baptism.

The issue between Bishop Stephen of Rome and Bishop Cyprian of Carthage along with the African synod of bishops was one between Rome who thought two baptisms were contrary to the canons, while the African bishops thought that the original baptism done by heretics was not a ‘true’ baptism.

God’s peace

micah
Mercytruth, the same discernment is occurring by and for candidates.

Coming from Mormonism myself, my Mormon baptism has meaning to me because it was my dad who baptized me Mormon. It was one of the more difficult things in my own discernment, that is, rejecting something that my dad views as very important.

The thing is, as I learned more about Christianity, and the Trinity, the more I understood my Mormon baptism was completely different than a Christian baptism. I wanted to be baptized Catholic.

A Catholic friend kind of laughs when I say this, and says of course! Who wouldn’t want to be baptized again and start all over, fresh? Good point.

As for intent, what I’m not seeing covered in this thread (and maybe I missed it) is the intention of baptism in relationship to the church itself. St. Cyprian describes the church as the holy land from which the spring of baptism flows. The Sacraments are established in the Church. The church is a mystical organism, not just a group of common believers. The Church is One because God is One. We baptize in the name, not names, of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Singular “name” indicates our belief in One God. We are baptized into the life of the Holy Trinity.

There is One Church, which all mainline Protestants acknowledge. We have ecumenical ties to other Christians because we believe in One God, and one Church. We may disagree on what, exactly, the structure of the one Church is, but we are all in agreement that it is the mystical Body of Christ.

This is the intent of baptism that Mormonism does not have. A LDS baptism does not have the intention of baptizing a person into the life of the Holy Trinity, or that of bringing a person into the ONE Body of Christ.

I don’t know how this aligns to the rulings on the Arians, as, the Arians were more than one large group but were comprised of many sects. The Catholic encyclopedia entry indicates Arian baptisms were declared valid, but this declaration changed later and their baptisms were declared invalid. The documents that would explain this decision no longer exist. We only have the decision itself.

However, we do have the writings of the ECFs at this time. All were in agreement that the baptismal formula, Father, Son and Holy Spirit, were required. There was disagreement (ie, St. Cyprian and St. Augustine) as to the validity of heretical/schismatic baptisms. But since Mormonism is neither heretical or schismatic, it wouldn’t fall under these arguments anyway. It is more like asking if a pagan baptism is valid. Since Mormonism is polytheistic, it resembles paganism in regards to their belief about God, and not Christian belief. As Marie already pointed out, it is more likely that the Curia was unaware of Mormon belief regarding who the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are, and didn’t investigate it until someone asked.

To your point of exorcism…it wouldn’t surprise me that it was a consideration, as, the Church has taken all catechumens into its care and does all that it can to bring them to Christ. The Rites, blessings, anointings, scrutinies, prayers, are all for the benefit of the catechumen. But a baptism is not made invalid by not having these things made available or performed for the catechumen. Baptismal graces are not injured, or removed, by not having an exorcism.
 
Exactly! This is why the Catholic Church usually performs a conditional baptism following an emergency baptism if the patient survives.
Unfortunately, a conditional baptism does not include the formal prayers of exorcism that are prayed in a complete Roman Catholic baptism.

I think the Vatican ruling in 2001 making LDS baptisms invalid may have been an issue in this regard… If anything, Bishop Cyprian and the African Synod of Bishops are vindicated when they insisted on correct matter, form, intent and the person baptizing. Correct matter and form were not deemed sufficient with regard to LDS baptisms as of 2001.

God’s peace

micah
 
Mercytruth, the same discernment is occurring by and for candidates.

Coming from Mormonism myself, my Mormon baptism has meaning to me because it was my dad who baptized me Mormon. It was one of the more difficult things in my own discernment, that is, rejecting something that my dad views as very important.

The thing is, as I learned more about Christianity, and the Trinity, the more I understood my Mormon baptism was completely different than a Christian baptism. I wanted to be baptized Catholic.

A Catholic friend kind of laughs when I say this, and says of course! Who wouldn’t want to be baptized again and start all over, fresh? Good point.

As for intent, what I’m not seeing covered in this thread (and maybe I missed it) is the intention of baptism in relationship to the church itself. St. Cyprian describes the church as the holy land from which the spring of baptism flows. The Sacraments are established in the Church. The church is a mystical organism, not just a group of common believers. The Church is One because God is One. We baptize in the name, not names, of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Singular “name” indicates our belief in One God. We are baptized into the life of the Holy Trinity.

There is One Church, which all mainline Protestants acknowledge. We have ecumenical ties to other Christians because we believe in One God, and one Church. We may disagree on what, exactly, the structure of the one Church is, but we are all in agreement that it is the mystical Body of Christ.

This is the intent of baptism that Mormonism does not have. A LDS baptism does not have the intention of baptizing a person into the life of the Holy Trinity, or that of bringing a person into the ONE Body of Christ.

I don’t know how this aligns to the rulings on the Arians, as, the Arians were more than one large group but were comprised of many sects. The Catholic encyclopedia entry indicates Arian baptisms were declared valid, but this declaration changed later and their baptisms were declared invalid. The documents that would explain this decision no longer exist. We only have the decision itself.

However, we do have the writings of the ECFs at this time. All were in agreement that the baptismal formula, Father, Son and Holy Spirit, were required. There was disagreement (ie, St. Cyprian and St. Augustine) as to the validity of heretical/schismatic baptisms. But since Mormonism is neither heretical or schismatic, it wouldn’t fall under these arguments anyway. It is more like asking if a pagan baptism is valid. Since Mormonism is polytheistic, it resembles paganism in regards to their belief about God, and not Christian belief. As Marie already pointed out, it is more likely that the Curia was unaware of Mormon belief regarding who the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are, and didn’t investigate it until someone asked.

To your point of exorcism…it wouldn’t surprise me that it was a consideration, as, the Church has taken all catechumens into its care and does all that it can to bring them to Christ. The Rites, blessings, anointings, scrutinies, prayers, are all for the benefit of the catechumen. But a baptism is not made invalid by not having these things made available or performed for the catechumen. Baptismal graces are not injured, or removed, by not having an exorcism.
Rebecca,

Thank you for your forthrightness. For the most part, I would not disagree with what you have written. We really do not know what sort of heretics Bishop Cyprian and the African Synod of bishops were adamant in rebaptizing.

Yes, at the time, there were the Novatians who were considered more as schismatics. Bishop Stephen of Rome indicated that form and matter was all that was required prior to him. So this issue of form and matter being sufficient could go as far back to the non-baptism of gnostics, which are not all that different from Mormon teachings. The Freemasony/gnostic/spiritualistic aspect of Mormonism seems to be present from the very beginnings of Joseph Smith and Brigham Young.

One of the African bishops in their joint letter to Bishop Stephen, mentions the baptisms of Marcion, a known gnostic. Baptismal graces are not removed by not having exorcism prayers prayed over the catechumen, but if such a person is oppressed with demons, there is a danger. It seems to me, that Baptisms without exorcism are what allows tares to be sown among the wheat. If anything, St.Cyprian and the African Synod of Bishops have been proven to be correct on this issue.

God’s peace be with you.

micah
 
I’d like to make a comment:

The reason that LDS baptisms are not sacramentally valid actually doesn’t have to do with lack of belief in the Holy Trinity. We actually accepted the baptisms of Arians - Arians were received into the Church via Chrismation, as I recall.

Arians didn’t believe in the Trinity, yet we accepted their baptism.

The reason LDS baptism isn’t accepted is because they don’t believe in God. Their god was formed from eternal spirit matter by another god who was formed from eternal spirit matter by another god who was formed . . . this regresses eternally. There is no beginning. It forms an eternal circle.

Mormons don’t believe in the first cause. They don’t believe that God is the creator of the material universe from nothing. Hence, they’re not even monotheists in the true sense. Mormonism has an essentially pagan cosmology.

That is why Mormon baptism is rejected.
 
If that’s true then how can an emergency baptism by an atheist be considered valid, when the atheist’s view of the Trinity is that it doesn’t exist?
An Atheist must intend to baptize as the penitent wishes to baptize. If the penitent wishes a Christian baptism, then it should be a valid baptism.

If the Atheist does the baptism with solely the intend to mock the dying penitent’s faith the baptism performed might invalid, however the penitent might receive a martyrs baptism (by blood or desire), and the atheist would certainly receive harsh judgment on the day of his own death.

Should the penitent survive, the Catholic Church will often administer a conditional baptism so that no lingering doubt remains as to the baptismal state of his or her soul.
 

Mormons don’t believe in the first cause. They don’t believe that God is the creator of the material universe from nothing. Hence, they’re not even monotheists in the true sense. Mormonism has an essentially pagan cosmology.

That is why Mormon baptism is rejected.
I totally agree with your assessment of Mormon formal doctrine, however wish to point out that the LDS is so circumspect in teaching these beliefs that many if not most of their members believe themselves to be worshiping the Christian God, despite the formal teaching of the LDS Church.
 
I totally agree with your assessment of Mormon formal doctrine, however wish to point out that the LDS is so circumspect in teaching these beliefs that many if not most of their members believe themselves to be worshiping the Christian God, despite the formal teaching of the LDS Church.
I absolutely agree with you.
 
An Atheist must intend to baptize as the penitent wishes to baptize. If the penitent wishes a Christian baptism, then it should be a valid baptism.

If the Atheist does the baptism with solely the intend to mock the dying penitent’s faith the baptism performed might invalid, however the penitent might receive a martyrs baptism (by blood or desire), and the atheist would certainly receive harsh judgment on the day of his own death.

Should the penitent survive, the Catholic Church will often administer a conditional baptism so that no lingering doubt remains as to the baptismal state of his or her soul.
The nature of the intent seems a bit mysterious. If an atheist is considered capable of administering a valid baptism, the the intent cannot be intent to achieve the supernatural effects of baptism, since the atheist would not intend that. So I thought maybe it just means intent to utter the words and bring water into contact with someone’s skin. But if that were true, then a baptism in a movie, where the actors are just acting, would be valid, and I don’t think anyone says that. (I thought of this when I saw the scene in the film White Oleander, where a teenaged girl got baptized.) So he would have to intend something more than just saying the words and dunking someone in water, in just the way a priest might do it, but nowhere near as much as what the Catholic Church believes.
 
The nature of the intent seems a bit mysterious. If an atheist is considered capable of administering a valid baptism, the the intent cannot be intent to achieve the supernatural effects of baptism, since the atheist would not intend that. So I thought maybe it just means intent to utter the words and bring water into contact with someone’s skin. But if that were true, then a baptism in a movie, where the actors are just acting, would be valid, and I don’t think anyone says that. (I thought of this when I saw the scene in the film White Oleander, where a teenaged girl got baptized.) So he would have to intend something more than just saying the words and dunking someone in water, in just the way a priest might do it, but nowhere near as much as what the Catholic Church believes.
I’ve looked closely during some baptismal scenes, and I noticed that they sometimes pan away when they’re pouring, or slightly miss the child with the water, or otherwise not show the complete baptismal ritual. I suspect in most cases, they do this to avoid scandalizing Christians, as the intent necessary for a valid baptism can be a bit murky.

I think in the case of “atheist”, the church presumes that all humans have some innate understanding of God, even those that consciously reject such belief. Thus even an atheist will have a rudimentary intention sufficient for the baptism to be effective.

I would hope that witnessing the creation of a saint at their very hand might even move the atheist back towards an expressed faith in God.
 
Unfortunately, a conditional baptism does not include the formal prayers of exorcism that are prayed in a complete Roman Catholic baptism.

I think the Vatican ruling in 2001 making LDS baptisms invalid may have been an issue in this regard… If anything, Bishop Cyprian and the African Synod of Bishops are vindicated when they insisted on correct matter, form, intent and the person baptizing. Correct matter and form were not deemed sufficient with regard to LDS baptisms as of 2001.

God’s peace

micah
Where does it say that the full ritual isn’t performed for a conditional baptism? It is generally done privately rather than at open mass (because a confession with a conditional absolution is made prior to the baptism), however I see no reason that the full ritual including minor exorcisms couldn’t be performed.
 
Where does it say that the full ritual isn’t performed for a conditional baptism? It is generally done privately rather than at open mass (because a confession with a conditional absolution is made prior to the baptism), however I see no reason that the full ritual including minor exorcisms couldn’t be performed.
We explained this to him earlier. (way earlier) in this thread.

The scutinies, Ephetha, etc.

I believe we have come full circle with this.
 
Where does it say that the full ritual isn’t performed for a conditional baptism? It is generally done privately rather than at open mass (because a confession with a conditional absolution is made prior to the baptism), however I see no reason that the full ritual including minor exorcisms couldn’t be performed.
When it is a matter of conditional baptisms for those whose baptisms are proven or in reasonable doubt, a full baptism is not given. Parts of a full baptism are given and which parts which are included is a decision made by the local archdiocese. This website might help to explain the complexities of formal and conditional baptisms.

archgh.org/default/pastoralcare/%28F%29%20Baptism.pdf

God’s peace be with you

micah
 
Unfortunately, a conditional baptism does not include the formal prayers of exorcism that are prayed in a complete Roman Catholic baptism.
You said it depends on the province. So how do you justify this generalization? Is your generalization incorrect?
If anything, Bishop Cyprian and the African Synod of Bishops are vindicated when they insisted on correct matter, form, intent and the person baptizing.
Incorrect. The only difference between St. Cyprian and Pope St. Stephen was the person baptizing (they both agreed on the necessity of proper matter/form/intent). St. Cyprian and his group were wrong.
Correct matter and form were not deemed sufficient with regard to LDS baptisms as of 2001.
What is your point? Correct matter and form have NEVER been regarded by the Church as SUFFICIENT criteria for valid baptism.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
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