Was there an official Canon of scripture before the Council of Trent?

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Guest1

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If not how did Martin Luther get his hands on deuterocanonical books to call them apocrypha? ( if he did)
 
Trent was where it was pronounced infallibly by the Church. There was still an accepted Scripture, which I imagine had to have contained the DC, long before that. (I don’t really know the specifics of any of this.)

Such infallible pronouncements are as far as I understand generally made to officially clarify errors, such as the one you identify here.
 
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Where did the established scripture before the council appear? Is it in your opinion the Council of hippo or Carthage?

Why did Martin Luther think he could take away books from being canon? Why did he even accept the books he did it all anyway?
🙂?
 
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