M
malphono
Guest
David, that is oh so true!!!This is just one of many reasons why some of us don’t think that everything that passes for “great” was really so “great”.
David, that is oh so true!!!This is just one of many reasons why some of us don’t think that everything that passes for “great” was really so “great”.
Canon Law “forbids” no such thing, and the sooner they in the so-clled “liturgy committee” learn it the better. But are you saying that they are overruling the pastor? Or is it that the pastor just does what they want? If the latter, the pastor has problems, and if so, maybe the bishop can help. (That’s a big “if” and depends on the bishop.)… In our little parish we used to pray a few responses in the mass in latin until they started a liturgy committee last month and then we were told that canon law forbids latin in the mass. So much for a liturgy committee that does not understand the basics of our catholicism…the mass.
Thank you , Doc!I was going to reply but Tim beat me to it. If you use the search function, you will see a number of threads where this issue has been debated back and forth and it always, always boils down to how the underlined part of your post is interpreted and applied, so that is probably where Tim is coming from.
Bottom line, your underlined point does not mean the at the EF cannot be amended or changed (it has been many times since 1570) or that a future Pope could not outright forbid it’s use (God forbid!).
*"“Therefore, no one whosoever is permitted to alter this letter or heedlessly to venture to go contrary to this notice of Our permission, statute, ordinance, command, precept, grant, indult declaration, will decree and prohibition. Should anyone, however, presume to commit such an act, he should know that he will incur the wrath of Almighty God and of the Blessed Apostles Peter and Paul.” *I have a big problem with this thinking. Presuming this document was written in Latin, a dead language, the Latin meaning should be unchanged between then and now, no? And also, since the TLM is basically unchanged since Quo Primum, are we going to give the same “wide, sweeping” leeway in the theology behind the Mass? I think not.
Point well taken. But we do confess to them during the Prayers at the Foot of the Altar so Pope Pius V did have a point too.If one had to face the wrath of Almighty God, what would be left to endure when handed over to the Blessed Apostles Peter and Paul? This was a conventional legal formula in papal documents of the day.
There’s a Tridentine Mass in Troy, NY that has been offered, with an indult from the Bishop, since 2000.OK. The part that confused me was the part about “in private with no congregation”. I had assumed that meant that prior to 2007 no public TLM would be allowed.
So am I correct in saying that certain Parishes received permission for the Tridentine Mass with congregation prior to 2007?
Not if the only choice is between crucifixion and beheading!Hey, come to think of it, these Apostles are also mentioned in EP1. Now you still want to risk the wrath of Sts Peter and Paul?![]()
When did any pope ever ban the Traditional Latin Mass (TLM)? If you can show me where a pope forbade the use of the TLM, then we can talk about that. Otherwise, those bishops are bound under the rule and laws established by prior popes. That encyclical clearly states and in those times as with ours would have been clearly understood to mean that no one can forbid its use. I’m not entirely sure if a future pope could or could not be bound by the laws set into place by a previous pope, for if a pope–the highest authority in the Church–said that a particular of law is established forever, then how could his equal, a future pope, overrule his decision? It seems to me that only a higher authority could undo a perpetually established law and that an equal authority would not have the ability to do so. I honestly have not studied what the doctors and traditional theologians have commented on that specific matter; nevertheless, such speculation is immaterial to our conversation, since no pope has ever forbid the TLM! Those who have suppressed and forbidden the use of the TLM were mere bishops and priests who did so on a local level. Because they are the subjects of the pope, they are also bound by laws that popes have established universally. Thus, those bishops and priests who acted in disobedience to the clear directives in Quo Primum have merited the wrath of the blessed apostles Peter and Paul, meaning that they will be judged harshly for their evil actions.I was going to reply but Tim beat me to it. If you use the search function, you will see a number of threads where this issue has been debated back and forth and it always, always boils down to how the underlined part of your post is interpreted and applied, so that is probably where Tim is coming from.
Bottom line, your underlined point does not mean the at the EF cannot be amended or changed (it has been many times since 1570) or that a future Pope could not outright forbid it’s use (God forbid!).
A current pope cannot bind a future pope. The pope, as the supreme head of the Church, is not even subject to Canon law; he can dispense with it if he wishes. The “perpetually established law” that is often referred to has to do with the promulgation of the Tridentine missal. Pope Paul VI, as head of the Church, acted under his authorization to reform the Roman Rite missal, and so we now have the Pauline missal which celebrates Mass according to the reforms of Pope Paul VI. Pope Benedict has declared that the Roman Rite liturgy has two forms; the Ordinary form, as contained in the Missal of Pope Paul VI and the Extraordinary form, as contained in the Tridentine missal, 1962 edition (now there’s a quandary for you!). Perhaps this might clear things a little:I’m not entirely sure if a future pope could or could not be bound by the laws set into place by a previous pope, for if a pope–the highest authority in the Church–said that a particular of law is established forever, then how could his equal, a future pope, overrule his decision? It seems to me that only a higher authority could undo a perpetually established law and that an equal authority would not have the ability to do so.
Once again, you assume that Quo Primum has bound bishops and priests. From 1570 on bishops and priests celebrated Mass in the form of the liturgy of the Roman Rite, as established in the Tridentine missal. From 1970 they celebrated Mass in the form of the Missal of Pope Paul VI. Unless a priest is a member of an order that has permission to celebrate Mass with a different liturgy they are obliged to use the current missal. This doesn’t even take into account the fact that Quo Primum only suppressed those liturgies less than 200 years old, so there are any number of liturgies being celebrated in the latin rite.Thus, those bishops and priests who acted in disobedience to the clear directives in Quo Primum have merited the wrath of the blessed apostles Peter and Paul, meaning that they will be judged harshly for their evil actions.
We need popes because new heresies arise. This is a common misunderstanding of the working of tradition. Tradition is not only “the way is was” but it is also the organic changes that develop through continued revelation through time. One example would be the Real Presence. Many argue that since that dogma was not established in the early Church, it doesn’t comport with “tradition”. Tradition however accepts new dogmas and revelations, and fixes them for ALL time.A current pope cannot bind a future pope. The pope, as the supreme head of the Church, is not even subject to Canon law; he can dispense with it if he wishes. The “perpetually established law” that is often referred to has to do with the promulgation of the Tridentine missal. Pope Paul VI, as head of the Church, acted under his authorization to reform the Roman Rite missal, and so we now have the Pauline missal which celebrates Mass according to the reforms of Pope Paul VI. Pope Benedict has declared that the Roman Rite liturgy has two forms; the Ordinary form, as contained in the Missal of Pope Paul VI and the Extraordinary form, as contained in the Tridentine missal, 1962 edition (now there’s a quandary for you!). Perhaps this might clear things a little:
"Did Pope Paul VI have the authority to repeal the Apostolic Constitution, Quo Primum? Technically, he did not abrogate the Roman Missal, but he did replace it by the new revised Roman Missal and derogated the use of the older Missal. Pope Paul VI possessed the same papal authority as Pope St. Pius V. The principle is explicitly recognized by the Code of Canon Law. Canon 22 states that “if the later law is equally general or equally particular with the former one” - and both Quo Primum and Missale Romanum are equally Apostolic Constitutions dealing with exactly the same subject matter of the former law, **a later law repeals the former one, “if it contains an explicit statement to that effect, a repealing clause.” **Pope Paul VI’s Missale Romanum did exactly that. It both mentions Quo Primum and says that what he is promulgating is promulgated “notwithstanding, as far as is necessary, Apostolic Constitutions and Ordinances issued by our Predecessors and other prescriptions worthy of special mention and derogation.”
If a current pope could bind a future pope , then why the need for the papacy? Why not have everything laid down, signed, sealed and delivered once and for all? Because that would be very impractical.
Once again, you assume that Quo Primum has bound bishops and priests. From 1570 on bishops and priests celebrated Mass in the form of the liturgy of the Roman Rite, as established in the Tridentine missal. From 1970 they celebrated Mass in the form of the Missal of Pope Paul VI. Unless a priest is a member of an order that has permission to celebrate Mass with a different liturgy they are obliged to use the current missal. This doesn’t even take into account the fact that Quo Primum only suppressed those liturgies less than 200 years old, so there are any number of liturgies being celebrated in the latin rite.
I was not advocating the abolishing of the pope nor the magisterium. I said the following in response to the assertion that no future pope could undo what a current pope does:That being said, by your argument a pope could dispense with the whole magisterium. ever heard of an anti-pope? The pope is the supreme head of the church, but cannot usurp the scriptures.
Please, not again. You have never shown this statement to be true, prefering to tell me to “pull (my) head out of the sand.” The Pauline missal and the document of Vatican II contain the continuous Traditions of the Church, even if YOU don’t like the way they are celebrated.The pauline missal dispensed with this organic tradition, and lead to the crisis we now face.
hmm… I’m really sure you didn’t understand what I posted, or I simply didn’t express myself clearly enough. That’s ok. You skipped over the heresy part.I was not advocating the abolishing of the pope nor the magisterium. I said the following in response to the assertion that no future pope could undo what a current pope does:
"If a current pope could bind a future pope , then why the need for the papacy? Why not have everything laid down, signed, sealed and delivered once and for all? Because that would be very impractical."
Please, not again. You have never shown this statement to be true, prefering to tell me to “pull (my) head out of the sand.” The Pauline missal and the document of Vatican II contain the continuous Traditions of the Church, even if YOU don’t like the way they are celebrated.
When did Christ say this? When did Peter say this? When did ANY Pope say this? Did any council say this? Where do you guys make this stuff up or did some bishop on the west coast convince you?A current pope cannot bind a future pope.
Are you saying he is above the law? This is very dangerous thinking.The pope, as the supreme head of the Church, is not even subject to Canon law.
The need for papacy is to PRESERVE the faith, not to abuse one’s authority. Paul VI had a pastoral mission from God, to promulgate a new Mass for pastoral reasons, clarify moral laws, and that’s it. He had no divine power nor could he change divine law. And he certainly had no authority to abrogate a divine Catholic rite to suit his agenda.If a current pope could bind a future pope , then why the need for the papacy?
Surely you are just being argumentative. The argument about Quo Primum is always that Pope Pius V established the Tridentine missal “in perpetuity,” with the implication that it can never be revised or replaced. It implies that Pope Pius V established a discipline that no other future pope may change. Canon law itself does not even allow such a circumstance, recognizing in Canon 22 that "if the later law is equally general or equally particular with the former one, a later law repeals the former one, if it contains an explicit statement to that effect, a repealing clause." Did Christ, Peter, ANY pope, council or some “guys” make this stuff up? No, it is embodied in the law of the Church.When did Christ say this? When did Peter say this? When did ANY Pope say this? Did any council say this? Where do you guys make this stuff up or did some bishop on the west coast convince you?
The Church is the Church and will always be the Church. Popes are there to defend the faith and not to compete with one another in popularity or authority.
Actually, many people here have stated that the pope, as supreme legislator of Canon law, is not bound by these same laws. The pope can waive the law whenever he feels the need to. It has happened in the past. Is it dangerous thinking? Only if the pope has a streak of evil or malignancy in him. But the popes of the past several centuries have been very decent and worthy men. I seriously doubt that they spend the day conniving about circumventing the law.Are you saying he is above the law? This is very dangerous thinking.
Agreed.The need for papacy is to PRESERVE the faith, not to abuse one’s authority. Paul VI had a pastoral mission from God, to promulgate a new Mass for pastoral reasons, clarify moral laws, and that’s it. He had no divine power nor could he change divine law.
Wrong. As pope he has every right to reform the missal, just as Pope Pius V had every right to issue his missal, many popes after had the right to reform Pope Pius V’s missal, and Pope Pius X had the right to reform the breviary, even though it contained the same “in perpetuity” clause as Quo Primum. I have no idea what “abrogate a divine Catholic rite” pertains to. If you mean reform the missal, then you are mistaken, and the “agenda” you refer to was the intention of the Second Vatican Council, just like Pope Pius V’s missal was issued by the intention of the Council of Trent.And he certainly had no authority to abrogate a divine Catholic rite to suit his agenda.
Wrong. A current pope can absolutely bind a future pope. Any infallible declaration for example does exactly that. No future pope can contradict sacred Tradition or establish anything contrary. The question is whether a pope can bind a future pope concerning temporal matters. The answer would seem to be that no he could not unless he established a temporal law that he said must endure forever until the end of time and that no one could change it.A current pope cannot bind a future pope.