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Eamonn50
Guest
Please do NOT take this is the wrong way. I am asking this question because I want to understand.
My question has to do with the Blessed Mother’s “Perpetual Virginity”.
I can understand why Mary ‘had’ to be a virgin in order to bear Jesus and I have no doubts about the fact that Jesus was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, but after the birth of Jesus, why would Mary need to remain a virgin? What does this have to do with the fact that she is the Mother of God?
Why couldn’t Mary and Joseph be like any other married couple?
The Church seems to have a fear that someone like Mary could have had an intimitate relationship AFTER the birth of Jesus.
I know that we say “Blessed Mary Ever Virgin”, but what difference does it make?
Thank you in advance.
My question has to do with the Blessed Mother’s “Perpetual Virginity”.
I can understand why Mary ‘had’ to be a virgin in order to bear Jesus and I have no doubts about the fact that Jesus was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, but after the birth of Jesus, why would Mary need to remain a virgin? What does this have to do with the fact that she is the Mother of God?
Why couldn’t Mary and Joseph be like any other married couple?
The Church seems to have a fear that someone like Mary could have had an intimitate relationship AFTER the birth of Jesus.
I know that we say “Blessed Mary Ever Virgin”, but what difference does it make?
Thank you in advance.