B
Bishopite
Guest
Dictionary.com says of arousal:I agree that arousal can happen without lust. But, I believe that lust may happen without arousal.
IMO, and relying on the CCC definition of lust, lust is a desire, a mental act. IMO arousal is a physical act. So, each is independent of the other.
If lust can’t happen without arousal, someone who is impotent can not lust. I don’t think that is so. Although physically constrained, they can still have lustful desires.
1.to stir to action or strong response; excite: to arouse a crowd; to arouse suspicion.
2.to stimulate sexually.
3.to awaken; wake up: The footsteps aroused the dog.
dictionary.reference.com/browse/arousal
Since the OP was speaking of sexual arousal I’m speaking of #2.
A man can be stimulated sexually and still be impotent. And in order to have lust, arousal it would seem needs to take place first.