Were there *two* sacrificial institutions at the same time?

[Contrabass101]

In the period between Christ’s institution of the Eucharist and the destruction of the temple, where there two God-willed sacrificial institutions?

In one of his parables, Jesus says that God will kill the bad stewards and give his vineyard to someone else - this is a clear prophecy of the priestly office and the Temple service being transferred to the apostles, but when does this happen?

Obviously the time of judgement was when the Temple was destroyed in 70 AD, but before this, was both the Eucharist and the offerings valid sacrifices?

• CB

 

[bogeydogg]

The tearing of the veil and the breaking open of the Inner Sanctum is the ending of the old sacrificial system.

 

[Huiou_Theou]

Ecellent question.

If you read Eusebius on church history, esp, the fall of Jerusalem he is wont to note a strange occurance at the siege of Jerusalem where the temple doors open by themselves just before the fall – suggesting that God left permanently at that moment.

The veil itself was only added in the old covenant because of the sin in the desert – the veil was not God’s original plan even for the old coveneant. The veil signified a seperation between God and man on account of man’s sin – and its ripping revealed the interiour of the temple which Jesus allows us to see in him crucified as a figure of heaven.

Pope John paul spoke of the permanence of the promise to those in the first coveneant, our “elder brothers” as he puts it. At the same time St. Paul speaks, and Jesus also, of how a new covenant means the old one is passing away.

The problem with the old covenant is that it was insufiicient to bring its people to their ultimate end – eg: Abraham, though not in hell – is not in heaven either in Jesus’ parables. The effects of the old covenant were to lead man toward life – but not the ultimate fulfillment of that promise. It is a holiness which abandons the devil – but still looks forward to Christ as it’s completion.

I think the question is an open one, depending largely on how one defines terms. Baptism of desire and Abraham comining immediately to mind.

 

[Nita]

In the period between Christ’s institution of the Eucharist and the destruction of the temple, where there two God-willed sacrificial institutions?

In one of his parables, Jesus says that God will kill the bad stewards and give his vineyard to someone else - this is a clear prophecy of the priestly office and the Temple service being transferred to the apostles, but when does this happen?

Obviously the time of judgement was when the Temple was destroyed in 70 AD, but before this, was both the Eucharist and the offerings valid sacrifices?

• CB

Yes, there were two “God-willed” sacrificial institutions. However, the OT sacrifical rite did not have the same power as the NT rite:

Hebrews 9:13 For if the sprinkling of defiled persons with the blood of goats and bulls and with the ashes of a heifer sanctifies for the purification of the flesh, 9:14 how much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without blemish to God, purify your conscience from dead works to serve the living God.

God allowed a “generation” (approx 40 years) to pass before He ended the OT sacrifices by allowing the Temple to be destroyed in 70 AD. Since then, the Sacrifice of the Mass is the only acceptable God-willed sacrificial rite.

 

[Joe_Kelley]

Note "

The priest who is chief among his brethren, upon whose head the anointing oil is poured, and who has been consecrated to wear the garments, shall not let the hair of his head hang loose, nor rend his clothes;

[Leviticus 21:10] This appears to apply to mourning, but may be a brader command against the High Priest rending his garments.

Note in Mark 14:63, at Jesus’ trial

• And the high priest tore his garments, and said, "Why do we still need witnesses?

This might be interpreted as an abdication of his office.

Just a bit of speculation.