J
jeenojos
Guest
Dear Father/Sir,
In conjection with newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.htm#IV , I would like to get a solution to my following imaginary condition.
circumstance: If a Pope teaches a doctrine (concerning faith and moral & pretending to be ex cathedra and definitive) which is exactly opposite to the official teaching of preceding Popes, will it carry infallibility? eg: (imaginary case) if a future Pope denies the transubstantiation as well as the real presence of Jesus in Eucharist (consecrated).
my opinion: such a situation will not occur. And if it happens, that is not infallible because the actual “ex cathedra” is missing there, because, this Pope is not faithful to God. Openness to God is something inseparably attached to the doctrine of infallibility.
Could you please give your advice?
In conjection with newadvent.org/cathen/07790a.htm#IV , I would like to get a solution to my following imaginary condition.
circumstance: If a Pope teaches a doctrine (concerning faith and moral & pretending to be ex cathedra and definitive) which is exactly opposite to the official teaching of preceding Popes, will it carry infallibility? eg: (imaginary case) if a future Pope denies the transubstantiation as well as the real presence of Jesus in Eucharist (consecrated).
my opinion: such a situation will not occur. And if it happens, that is not infallible because the actual “ex cathedra” is missing there, because, this Pope is not faithful to God. Openness to God is something inseparably attached to the doctrine of infallibility.
Could you please give your advice?