What came first The Bible or the Church? Did Jesus, say to Peter you are Rock and on this Rock I will Build My Bible.

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Sad, and false. The Catholic Encyclopedia only establishes that there were Church Fathers who did not know the date, not that it did not happen. Both the Catholic and Orthodox faiths believe in the Assumption, or the Dormition, of Mary, in that she was without sin. The early Protestant fathers also believed in this doctrine. It has only been with more Protestant teachers that this has been challenged.

Protestantism claims inerrancy in the Bible. We agree. But the inerrancy comes from a Bible compiled by the Catholic Church, not 1500 years after Christ.
No one said anything about it for 300 years because it never happened. One thing you and the Orthodox completely agree on is…that you completely do not agree on ANY of the details.
Of course the Catholic Encyclopedia does not say it never happened. But it clearly shows the contradictory and late nature of this belief.
If you mean a church that believed in an infallible Pope, venerated images, believed in the Assumption and Immaculate Conception, or had a monarchial bishop…then no…you did not compile anything.
 
The Eucharist was establish by Jesus in John Chapter 6. If you take the Holy Scriptures, with Tradition, no other conclusion can be made.
Stick to the topic. The fact is that the earliest Christians did not believe in what your church believes. Its right there for anyone to read. I notice you tried to change the topic because you know the early church did not venerate images, believe in the Immaculate Conception or Assumption and many other late inventions.
 
No one said anything about it for 300 years because it never happened. One thing you and the Orthodox completely agree on is…that you completely do not agree on ANY of the details.
Of course the Catholic Encyclopedia does not say it never happened. But it clearly shows the contradictory and late nature of this belief.
If you mean a church that believed in an infallible Pope, venerated images, believed in the Assumption and Immaculate Conception, or had a monarchial bishop…then no…you did not compile anything.
All of your criticisms in the last paragraph are either explitly in the Bible, implies in the Bible, or at the very least do not contradict the Bible. Why so angry?
 
All of your criticisms in the last paragraph are either explitly in the Bible, implies in the Bible, or at the very least do not contradict the Bible. Why so angry?
Because he truly knows the truth in his heart, he just doesn’t want to give in. 😃
 
All of your criticisms in the last paragraph are either explitly in the Bible, implies in the Bible, or at the very least do not contradict the Bible. Why so angry?
they were not supported by the earliest Christians. I am not angry at all. Quit talking about my feelings. I am typing fast though to keep up!
If you want to find out the proper interpretation of the Bible, ask the people closest to it. The ECF do not support these man made doctrines.
 
Papal infallibility is in the Scriptures.
Office of the Pope as first among equals was in the Scriptures
Immaculate Conception not contrdicted by Scriptures.
Communion of the Saints explicitly in Scriptures
Religous Orders explicitly in Sccriptures.
Need I go on? I’m getting carpal tunnel.
 
Because he truly knows the truth in his heart, he just doesn’t want to give in. 😃
I see you are not dealing with the quotes I provided. I suspect most Catholics have not read the Ante Nicene Fathers. They would be shocked to find out writers do not support an Immaculate
Conception, Assumption, and so forth.
Speaking of earliest Christian writings.
What about the Didache written before the Bible was even finished. I wonder if the pastor said something to turn the bread and water into Jesus?

9
Now about the Eucharist:503503I.e., “the Thanksgiving.” The term, however, had become a technical one in Christianity for the special giving of thanks at the Lord’s Supper. One might render the verbal form (“give thanks”), which immediately follows, as “say grace,” for it was out of the Jewish forms for grace before and after meals (accompanied in the one instance by the breaking of bread and in the other by sharing a common cup of wine) that the Christian thanksgivings of the Lord’s Supper developed. This is how to give thanks:  2First in connection with the cup:504504It is a curious feature of the Didache that the cup has been displaced from the end of the meal to the very beginning. Equally curious is the absence of any direct reference to the body and blood of Christ.
“We thank you, our Father, for the holy vine505505This may be a metaphorical reference to the divine life and knowledge revealed through Jesus (cf. ch. 9:3). It may also refer to the Messianic promise (cf, Isa. 11:1), or to the Messianic community (cf. Ps. 80:8), i.e., the Church. of David, your child, which you have revealed through Jesus, your child. To you be glory forever.”
3Then in connection with the piece506506An odd phrase, but one that refers to the Jewish custom (taken over in the Christian Lord’s Supper) of grace before meals. The head of the house would distribute to each of the guests a piece of bread broken off a loaf, after uttering the appropriate thanksgiving to God. [broken off the loaf]:
"We thank you, our Father, for the life and knowledge which you have revealed through Jesus, your child. To you be glory forever.
4"As this piece [of bread] was scattered over the hills507507The reference is likely to the sowing of wheat on the hillsides of Judea. and then was brought together and made one, so let your Church be brought together from the ends of the earth into your Kingdom. For yours is the glory and the power through Jesus Christ forever.
ccel.org/ccel/richardson/fathers.viii.i.iii.html
 
Papal infallibility is in the Scriptures.
Office of the Pope as first among equals was in the Scriptures
Immaculate Conception not contrdicted by Scriptures.
Communion of the Saints explicitly in Scriptures
Religous Orders explicitly in Sccriptures.
Need I go on? I’m getting carpal tunnel.
Of course not. If it was you and the Orthodox would not have split over it. There are three divisions of church leadership and the earliest documents like Clement, the Didache, and Polycarp support that. Bishop, presbyter, and deacon. But the bishop was not over the other three, they would even teach you that in any Catholic seminary.
 
It is just as easy to pick “proof texts” out of the early Fathers as it is to pick them out of the Bible. It’s also easy to misleadingly quote a source, as you did the Catholic Encyclopedia. The article you cited did indeed mention Origen, St. Basil, and St. Chrystosom as opposing Mary’s perpetual virginity, but you neglected to say that it followed that with fourteen fathers (among others) who believed it.

Here are some of them, which I found here. Bolding mine.

Athanasius:
“Let those, therefore, who deny that the Son is by nature from the Father and proper to his essence deny also that he took true human flesh from the ever-virgin Mary” (*Discourses Against the Arians *2:70 [A.D. 360]).

St. Jerome:
“Might I not array against you the whole series of ancient writers? Ignatius, Polycarp, Irenaeus, Justin Martyr, and many other apostolic and eloquent men, who against [the heretics] Ebion, Theodotus of Byzantium, and Valentinus, held these same views and wrote volumes replete with wisdom. If you had ever read what they wrote, you would be a wiser man” (Against Helvidius: The Perpetual Virginity of Mary 19 [A.D. 383]). Note he contradicts your belief about Irenaeus.

St. Augustine:
“Heretics called Antidicomarites are those who contradict the perpetual virginity of Mary and affirm that after Christ was born she was joined as one with her husband” (*Heresies *56 [A.D. 428]).

Oh, and finding a dissident Bishop in the early church means precisely nothing. We have them today, too. If you can find a source that says that all Catholic clergy are perfect, quote it. Not even the Apostles were perfect.

To God be the glory,

Ruthie
 
And by the same token there are teachings of fundamentalists that can be found nowhere in th bible as well, with no Magesterium to back them up.
 
Further quotes that show that the early Christians did not believe like current Catholics:

Polycrates tell Victor bishop of Rome that he does not have to do what he is saying. Of course we find out that the excommunication was summarily ignored because Victor had no power outside of Rome…

Contradictory list of early Popes (because the so called succession was made up anyway by Irenaues)

“Linus, Cletus, Clemens (Hegesippus, ap. Epiphanium, Canon of Mass).
Linus, Anencletus, Clemens (Irenaeus, Africanus ap. Eusebium).
Linus, Anacletus, Clemens (Jerome).
Linus, Cletus, Anacletus, Clemens (Poem against Marcion),
Linus, Clemens, Cletus, Anacletus [Hippolytus (?), “Liberian Catal.”- “Liber. Pont.”].
Linus, Clemens, Anacletus (Optatus, Augustine).

This is from Catholic Encyclopedia as well.

I have always wanted to ask a Fundamentalist, “What if I did not believe that the Gospels were divinely inspired?” Can I remove them from the Bible and still be Christian?" What if I believe the Gospels are, but Pauls letters are not? Unfortunately, when Protestants pick and choose, this is precisely what they do.

As to Victor, Bishop of Rome, and Polycrates of Ephesus, this letter is used both to prove and disprove the authority of the Bishop of Rome. In the part of the letter you excluded, Polycrates acknowledges that the Bishops “whom I summoned at your desire” agreed with my position.

Victor’s excommunication was not summarily ignored because he was not recognized as head of the Church. Iraneus interceded on Polycrates part and asked Victor to change his position. Victor did so.

As to papal succession, you establish only that there lacked the communication or knowledge of things going on throughout the Roman Empire at that time. This supports my claim that the Bible, for example, was not well known in its current form in the First Century.

Your claim about Iraneus is bogus.
 
Of course not. If it was you and the Orthodox would not have split over it. There are three divisions of church leadership and the earliest documents like Clement, the Didache, and Polycarp support that. Bishop, presbyter, and deacon. But the bishop was not over the other three, they would even teach you that in any Catholic seminary.
And how would you know about anything that is taught in a Catholic seminary? YOU DON’T.
 
For neither does any of us set himself up as a bishop of bishops, nor by tyrannical terror does any compel his colleague to the necessity of obedience; since every bishop, according to the allowance of his liberty and power, has his own proper right of judgment, and can no more be judged by another than he himself can judge another. But let us all wait for the judgment of our Lord Jesus Christ, who is the only one that has the power both of preferring us in the government of His Church, and of judging us in our conduct there.
260 AD
A council at Carthage. You guys love the one that put the Deuterocanonical books in. But you do not often quote the one 200 years earlier
 
And how would you know about anything that is taught in a Catholic seminary? YOU DON’T.
Oh…you mean that bishops and deacons were equal in the early church?
I have a source for that belief that every Catholic in seminary would be taught, straight from our friends at the Catholic Encyclopedia again

It talks about how the Didache, the earliest document outside of the Bible, describes the local church government
“There are other signs of early date: …But the chief point is the ministry. It is twofold: (1) local and (2) itinerant. — (1) The local ministers are bishops and deacons, as in St. Paul (Phil., i, 1) and St. Clement. Presbyters are not mentioned, and the bishops are clearly presbyter-bishops, as in Acts, xx, and in the Pastoral Epistles of St. Paul. But when St. Ignatius wrote in 107, or at the latest 117, the three orders of bishops, priests, and deacons were already considered necessary to the very name of a Church, in Syria, Asia Minor, and Rome. If it is probable that in St. Clement’s time there was as yet no “monarchical” bishop at Corinth, yet such a state of things cannot have lasted long in any important Church. On this ground therefore the Didache must be set either in the first century or else in some backwater of church life. The itinerant ministry is obviously yet more archaic”.
 
I’m gonna sit out of this one for a while. It would appear CAtholic Apologists who know their stuff much better than I have things in hand.
 
I have always wanted to ask a Fundamentalist, “What if I did not believe that the Gospels were divinely inspired?” Can I remove them from the Bible and still be Christian?" What if I believe the Gospels are, but Pauls letters are not? Unfortunately, when Protestants pick and choose, this is precisely what they do.

As to Victor, Bishop of Rome, and Polycrates of Ephesus, this letter is used both to prove and disprove the authority of the Bishop of Rome. In the part of the letter you excluded, Polycrates acknowledges that the Bishops “whom I summoned at your desire” agreed with my position.

Victor’s excommunication was not summarily ignored because he was not recognized as head of the Church. Iraneus interceded on Polycrates part and asked Victor to change his position. Victor did so.

As to papal succession, you establish only that there lacked the communication or knowledge of things going on throughout the Roman Empire at that time. This supports my claim that the Bible, for example, was not well known in its current form in the First Century.

Your claim about Iraneus is bogus.
There is absolutely no evidence that Victor rescended or changed his position. That is a common argument that Catholic apologists make because it was ignored.
You can try to find patristic evidence that it was taken back…you will not.
I will be willing to revisit this thread weeks or months later as you attempt to find any patristic support for this contention so often repeated on the internet.
 
If you think that the church of the first three hundred years looks like your church, we would have to deal with my quotes. In some ways yes, in some ways, no way.
And you base this, on what? The early Christians were willing to die going to Church. Was this because they desired to sing songs? Listen to someone preach what they thought the Apostles said? No, they came, and risked death, to receive the Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity, of Jesus Christ. It is the reason that early pagans and Emperors referred to the Christians as canabals. Modern Protestantism makes Church attendance voluntary in most places, since authority comes from the Bible itself, and no one other than you, and your interpretation of the Holy Spirit, should decide what is right.
God put together his canon. When Paul said that all scripture was inspired…God’s OT, no earthly authority did that. It was God.
Again, you are wrong. While right that God inspired the canon, who actually stated what was in the Canon? The Catholic Church. Amazing that you and I would agree on all books in the New Testament, when as Catholics, we find that the early Church declared which books were divinely inspired.
They did not celebrate the Eucharist. They broke bread. We do that. No details included. So no, they did not celebrate the Eucharist and the details from the Didache and Justyn Martyr are skeleton enough in nature that you cannot claim them as being just like your Eucharist at all.
Sorry, but again you are wrong. You choose to rewrite history, in the last few centuries. Clearly, the early Church saw the Eucharist in this fashion, and believed that they were following that which had been done since the time of Christ. This is a classic example of where a fundamentalist does not want to take the Bible fundamentally, since it would contradict with his position.
 
They did not have a Pope. Control of the church was in the hands of the pillars, or the Apostles and James, the first born of Mary after Jesus
That quote doesn’t prove that there wasn’t a single authority. If you said, “that company is run by a board of directors,” that doesn’t mean there isn’t a chairman of the board. All you’ve proven is that there was hierarchy and control, which I think undermines your previous point, that there wasn’t.

Marcus Grodi quotes St. Ignatius of Antioch as saying,
“Ignatius…to the church also which holds the presidency in the place of the country of the Romans, worthy of God, worthy of honor, worthy of blessing, worthy of praise, worthy of success, worthy of sanctification, and, because you hold the presidency in love, named after Christ and named after the Father.” St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Romans, 1:1, A.D. 110
members.shaw.ca/bmaundy/Main/Early_Church_Fathers_files/The%20ECF%20I%20Never%20Saw.pdf
In his book *Against Heresies, *written somewhere about 180 A.D, St. Irenaeus provides a thorough account of apostolic and papal succession. Although Irenaeus was bishop of modern day Lyons, he traced the history of the Church of Rome instead, as “it is a matter of necessity that every Church should agree with this Church, on account of its pre-eminent authority.” You can find that here: en.wikisource.org/wiki/Ante-Nicene_Fathers/Volume_I/IRENAEUS/Against_Heresies:_Book_III/Chapter_III.
They did not believe that Mary remained a virgin.
Here’s a slew of Early Church Fathers who believed just that:
cin.org/users/jgallegos/virgin.htm
And as the protoplast himself Adam, had his substance from untilled and as yet virgin soil (“for God had not yet sent rain, and man had not tilled the ground” Genesis 2:5 ), and was formed by the hand of God, that is, by the Word of God, for “all things were made by Him,” John 1:3 and the Lord took dust from the earth and formed man; so did He who is the Word, recapitulating Adam in Himself, rightly receive a birth, enabling Him to gather up Adam [into Himself], from Mary, who was as yet a virgin (Irenaeus).”
You’re quoting from Against Heresies, which I just quoted above. The part you’re quoting can be found here: newadvent.org/fathers/0103321.htm. I think you’ll find that he’s affirming the Virgin Birth, not negating the Perpetual Virginity.

I’m pleased that you’re acknowledging that Irenaeus is a representative of the early Church, because this book is so incredibly Catholic (as evidenced from his views on papal primacy). Hopefully, you’ll accept him as consistently when he disagrees with your views as when he agrees with them.
They do not believe she was sinless as the Catholic Encyclopedia states:
I think the Encyclopedia is absolutely right here. The early Fathers were on a spectrum - some holding the modern Catholic position, others in error. You would find the same sort of spectrum if you looked at their understanding of the Holy Trinity, but that doesn’t mean that the Trinity is a Catholic invention.
The Encyclopedia also states:
This celebrated comparison between Eve, while yet immaculate and incorrupt – that is to say, not subject to original sin – and the Blessed Virgin is developed by:
* Justin (Dialogue with Trypho 100),
* Irenaeus (Against Heresies III.22.4),
* Tertullian (On the Flesh of Christ 17),
* Julius Firmicus Maternus (De errore profan. relig xxvi),
* Cyril of Jerusalem (Catecheses 12.29),
* Epiphanius (Hæres., lxxviii, 18),
* Theodotus of Ancyra (Or. in S. Deip n. 11), and
* Sedulius (Carmen paschale, II, 28).
So to say that the “early Church” didn’t hold this view seems misleading to me - the very text you’re citing says otherwise. More accurate would be to say that certain outliers didn’t hold the view, of which you quote generously.
This is also supported by Ambrose of Milan
I don’t think Ambrose is even considering Mary in this quote - it certainly doesn’t seem that he’s advancing a specific “Mary wasn’t without sin.” And if he was, he was wrong, and in the minority in any case.
John Chrystom talks of Jesus rebuking Mary
Again, you omit really important parts of the quotes you’re citing. This time, you use an ellipsis to get around it:
This is why He said, “Who is My mother and My brethren?” Not to insult her who had borne Him, (away with the thought!) but to procure her the greatest benefit, and not to let her think meanly of Him. For if He cared for others, and used every means to implant in them a becoming opinion of Himself, much more would He do so in the case of His mother.
newadvent.org/fathers/240121.htm
So Chrysostom would have that Jesus rebuked her to increase her faith, and to prevent her from sinning. Which hardly refutes the proposition that Mary was sinless. It only means that: (1) Mary had the *capacity *to sin; and (2) Mary was not omniscient. Catholics will agree with that. Mary still needed Jesus to save her - Luke 1:47 made that explicit.

Even if St. John Chrysostom believed that Mary *had *sinned (although again, I must insist that I don’t see where you’re drawing that conclusion), it would merely be another person who was on the erroneous side of the spectrum. The truth is that the early Church had various views on Mary - some correct, some incorrect. To suggest that the ones that the Catholic Church infallibly declared correct make it a Catholic creation is bizarre. As the Catholic Encyclopedia link you provided shows, these views date back to the earliest days of the Church.
 
No one said anything about it for 300 years because it never happened. One thing you and the Orthodox completely agree on is…that you completely do not agree on ANY of the details.
Of course the Catholic Encyclopedia does not say it never happened. But it clearly shows the contradictory and late nature of this belief.
If you mean a church that believed in an infallible Pope, venerated images, believed in the Assumption and Immaculate Conception, or had a monarchial bishop…then no…you did not compile anything.
I pity you. I count on the fervent hope that Christ will too. Nothing, and I repeat, nothing you have presented establishes the negative you claim. The Church openly makes claims, which I believe that we can agree upon, at least since the 4th century, after Christianity was legalized. The Church established the canons of Scripture. And you base your claims upon, what?
 
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