balto:
I accept all of this, but the question I have is that why does human thinking tend to converge on what we would call “good music?” There is an enormous, if not infinite, selection of sounds that could be combined into would-be music, but only a very small, specific set is considered music.
This leads to more general question of “what do we find aesthetically pleasing, or beautiful”? The answer is again rather simple: we find something beautiful if we are exposed to it frequently. In other words, beauty is “learned” not ingrained. Just an example: look at the Madonna pictures created a few hundred years ago. They are quite similar to each other, so we can safely assume that they represent the prevailing concept of beauty. But if you look at them closely, their eyes are all protruding and ugly by today’s standards.

The reason is simple: most people had such protruding eyes… due to the lack of iodine in the drinking water. (It is called Basedow’s disease.)
There is the Golden Ratio (1.618…) which we find very pleasing. Artists discovered this fact a long time ago. Michelangelo’s Last Supper is loaded with this number. The reason that we find it “beautiful” is simple. We are surrounded with it. It is all over the place in nature. The average human body has this ratio everywhere.
balto:
If there really is nothing that we are connecting to in music, then shouldn’t we expect to see a random distribution of musical preferences? Although not everyone likes the same kind of music, we tend to agree on what is and is not music and what is dissonance.
Not really. When Mozart created his first pieces, they were not considered “beautiful”, they were off the beaten track. When rock music was first introduced it was characterized as a mere cacophony. Today most people do not like “rap” music, others love it. Even in music there are trends. The old, oriental (especially Indian) music using mostly drums and some strings is not palatable to many people.
balto:
Just to clear up any misconceptions, I am not claiming that the physical manuscript or play of Hamlet is pre-existent. I think that what I am meaning to say is that something akin to the “moral” of Hamlet is pre-existent and Shakespeare connected with this moral and expressed it as a play in order to convey this meaning to other people.
Very well. Somewhat clearer now, but still not clear. The manuscript is only one of the representations of Hamlet. There is no abstract “moral” of Hamlet, or the Ninth Symphony. If there are “abstract objects”, then all these exist independently from us.
balto:
Speaking of “where” and “when” this moral would exist is undefined, as an immaterial truth would not be constrained by spacetime.
This is the point when you lose me. The word “exists” is undefined here. We are all aware of physical existence – no disagreement there. We are aware of concepts, and abstractions. These cannot exist without the material underpinning. To say that there is an abstract “behind” independently from two physical objects and an observer (all aligned on the same line, with the observer being at one end) makes no sense at all. Without an observer there is no “behind”.
balto:
Well I’ll have to check the Catechism but I think what is probably claimed is that human life begins at conception, which would be true.
I am talking about the “
moment of ensoulment”. For a long time it was asserted that ensoulment is connected to the “quickening”. (In Genesis God blew the “soul” into Adam’s nostrils, and in some languages the word “soul” is a derivative of “breath”.) As far as I am aware, there is
no official teaching about the moment of ensoulment. Just Google the “moment of ensoulment” and you will find a truckload of opinions

One of the serious objections is related to the case of maternal twins. There is one egg being impregnated and then a split occurs, and two fetuses are formed. What happens to the “soul”? Anyhow… the concept of the soul adds nothing to activity of the brain (called the mind), it only adds unnecessary confusion.