R
rossum
Guest
No. He died at one point in space-time and He rose at a different point in space-time. Different actions at different points in space-time. Points that were three days apart in the time dimension. That is change by any rational definition. Anything else is Humpty Dumpty argumentation.That God (Jesus Christ) died and rose from the dead at one point of space and time
God is seeing them from outside time, in faarn. We have agreed that God is faarnstatic. Within time there is change. Outside time both ‘changing’ and ‘unchanging’ have no meaning.That we see them sequentially does not prove that God does not see them eternally.
Look near the top of my posts, in the first quote, where it says “Originally Posted by Douglas Kraeger http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif”. That http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_khaki/viewpost.gif is a link. Click on it and you will be taken to the post I am quoting from. In this case I am answering your question as quoted in my post:My question was: Are you saying that it is impossible for God to be outside of time and space, doing all He does in the present tense, all at ‘once’ always? Not possible?It would help me understand what you are saying if you coulduse as much ofmy question as possiblein your answer.
The problem is not with the English language. The problem is that you are trying to put God outside time and then describe Him in terms of time. You cannot do both, once you are outside time a whole range of time based concepts like change, causation, growth, development, resurrection etc. become useless because they have no meaning. You are trying to have your cake and eat it; operating outside time while using time based concepts. One or the other, not both.please try to provide areason why it is impossible rather than get sidelined with problems of the english language when dealing with God?
If you ask the same question then you will get the same answer. Let us instead try a different question, how do you derive an objective morality without resorting to any subjective opinions? Perhaps if we worked from your side we might make more progress.I HAVE BEEN LISTENING. I keep asking (I think 4 times so far) how you start with a number of subjective opinions and comeup with a truly objective morallity.
I did not say it was a proof. It is a description of the method you can use to obtain a proof for yourself. Actually obtaining the proof is up to you. You now know where to find it.This not a proof.
I agree, there are objective morals.I know there are objective moral should’s and should not’s.
The universe. The moral order is built into the universe. Go back again to my analogy of karma with gravity. Both are built into the universe.And I know that there can be no truly objective moral order without something bigger than men and women to so ordain that order. What is the originator of your objective moral order?
I do not start with just subjective opinions. Now you need to answer the question, “how do you arrive at an objective morality?”how do you start with subjective opinions and get to a truly objective morallity?
rossum