What changed in 500 years?

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The Protestant Reformation was based on essential doctrinal issues. It is my understanding that nothing has changed doctrinally in the last 500 years in regards to the Protestant Reformation. Has the Roman Catholic Church changed on the issues that caused the Protestant Reformation? The issues are still the same. Would you agree with my conclusion?

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protestant_Reformation
 
The Protestant Reformation was based on essential doctrinal issues. It is my understanding that nothing has changed doctrinally in the last 500 years in regards to the Protestant Reformation. Has the Roman Catholic Church changed on the issues that caused the Protestant Reformation? The issues are still the same. Would you agree with my conclusion?
No, I wouldn’t agree… Martin Luther was right about his initial complaint, which was HOW indulgences were being marketed… basically, some of the German bishops were incorrect in how they did this. But if you know anything about Germans, you know that once their back is up about something they add every little nit-picky thing even if they know they are just picking at things they essentially agree with but there is something about it that could be misconstrued by others.

Incidentally, the Catholic Church had taken care of those German Bishops and they were made to cease their wrong doing and make apologies. Also, Martin Luther had a bone to pick about celibacy because very shortly after his break he married a nun that he took with him in his movement. ML was very close to total reconciliation with the church when the one bishop he trusted and could work with died and nobody else could work with him as well or even wanted to try. If you go and read his 95 theses… you will see that plainly some of his complaints no longer exist.
 
The Protestant Reformation was based on essential doctrinal issues. It is my understanding that nothing has changed doctrinally in the last 500 years in regards to the Protestant Reformation. Has the Roman Catholic Church changed on the issues that caused the Protestant Reformation? The issues are still the same. Would you agree with my conclusion?

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Protestant_Reformation
Obviously! The doctrines of the Catholic Church never change, unlike Protestant religions.
 
No, I wouldn’t agree… Martin Luther was right about his initial complaint, which was HOW indulgences were being marketed… basically, some of the German bishops were incorrect in how they did this. But if you know anything about Germans, you know that once their back is up about something they add every little nit-picky thing even if they know they are just picking at things they essentially agree with but there is something about it that could be misconstrued by others.

Incidentally, the Catholic Church had taken care of those German Bishops and they were made to cease their wrong doing and make apologies. Also, Martin Luther had a bone to pick about celibacy because very shortly after his break he married a nun that he took with him in his movement. ML was very close to total reconciliation with the church when the one bishop he trusted and could work with died and nobody else could work with him as well or even wanted to try. If you go and read his 95 theses… you will see that plainly some of his complaints no longer exist.
Thanks for the post. But doctrinally, indulgences are still part of your Faith, correct? In addition, Priests and nuns are still not able to marry. Is my understanding correct on these two doctrinal issues? Would you also agree that the way of salvation is the same as it was taught 500 years ago?
 
Thanks for the post. But doctrinally, indulgences are still part of your Faith, correct? In addition, Priests and nuns are still not able to marry. Is my understanding correct on these two doctrinal issues? Would you also agree that the way of salvation is the same as it was taught 500 years ago?
Indulgences do still exist - that was not the original contention. It was the fact that some misguided people were selling them. That was never sanctioned, but it did need to be stopped (and was).

Celibacy is still a discipline within the Roman rite and in most (all?) religious communities. Married men are still ordained to the priesthood in some of the Eastern rites (with the exception that a single man, once ordained, cannot marry). But celibacy is not a doctrine - it is a very well chosen discipline (that no one is surprised by when they take their vows), but it is still not a doctrine.
 
Thanks for the post. But doctrinally, indulgences are still part of your Faith, correct? In addition, Priests and nuns are still not able to marry. Is my understanding correct on these two doctrinal issues? Would you also agree that the way of salvation is the same as it was taught 500 years ago?
Yes indulgences are still practiced and they are doctrinally sound… ML did not disagree with indulgences as a concept, but that they were being marketed by bishops where they should not have been. As for priests and marriage… this is not a doctrine, it is a discipline which is allowed to change… the Eastern rite allows married priests but the Latin rite practices single celibate priesthood in most cases… they do allow minister converts from protestant faiths to be married priests. As another poster said… The Catholic Church has not changed doctrine but that doesn’t mean that in the past these doctrine were followed or understood correctly.
 
Indulgences do still exist - that was not the original contention. It was the fact that some misguided people were selling them. That was never sanctioned, but it did need to be stopped (and was).

Celibacy is still a discipline within the Roman rite and in most (all?) religious communities. Married men are still ordained to the priesthood in some of the Eastern rites (with the exception that a single man, once ordained, cannot marry). But celibacy is not a doctrine - it is a very well chosen discipline (that no one is surprised by when they take their vows), but it is still not a doctrine.
Hahaha… great minds think alike… we said almost the same thing at almost the same time!!!
 
-]/-]
Indulgences do still exist - that was not the original contention. It was the fact that some misguided people were selling them. That was never sanctioned, but it did need to be stopped (and was).

Celibacy is still a discipline within the Roman rite and in most (all?) religious communities. Married men are still ordained to the priesthood in some of the Eastern rites (with the exception that a single man, once ordained, cannot marry). But celibacy is not a doctrine - it is a very well chosen discipline (that no one is surprised by when they take their vows), but it is still not a doctrine.
As soon as a coin in the coffer rings / the soul from purgatory springs." Tetzel

(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.)

Please help me understand. Are you saying Tetzel was working against the authority of the Catholic Church?

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johann_Tetzel

In regards to the Roman Catholic Church, is celibacy an option for a Roman Catholic Priest or nun? Are you saying Eastern Orthodox Priests can marry?
 
Time to go. This thread is also intended for Protestants too. If the Church of Rome has not basically changed in doctrine, what is the difference between the original Protestant Reformers and 21st century Protestants. Why should I have an ecumenical agenda if essential doctrines have not changed in 500 years? Are 21st century unfaithful in the light of Jude 3? Are 21st century Protesants naive and ignorant about the essential reasons of the Protestant Reformation?
 
In addition, Priests and nuns are still not able to marry.

You don’t think a nun is the female equivalent of a priest, do you?
 
Please help me understand. Are you saying Tetzel was working against the authority of the Catholic Church?
What he was doing was/is/will always be wrong. The question of whether or not Pope Leo X approved it is immaterial, because the sale of indulgences was never a doctrinal practice within the Church. Even if he DID approve it (remember, hypothetically), he did so as an individual and certainly never made an infallible proclamation to the effect that they were allowed to be sold (because, by virtue of his office, he wouldn’t/couldn’t).
In regards to the Roman Catholic Church, is celibacy an option for a Roman Catholic Priest or nun? Are you saying Eastern Orthodox Priests can marry?
Celibacy is a mandatory discipline (one highly recommended by St. Paul), and no, it is not optional in the Roman rite - but again, no one is surprised by this on the day they take their vows. And I was actually referring to Eastern Catholics - remember, we do not just have the Roman rite, there are the Byzantine, Maronite, etc. rites, all under the authority of the Pope. But no priest, once ordained, can marry. I said that some married men were admitted to the priesthood. It’s an important difference!
 
what is the difference between the original Protestant Reformers and 21st century Protestants.
I would say this is a startling difference:

Martin Luther in 1527: “It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary’s soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin and adorned with God’s gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she was free from all sin.”

Even Calvin and Zwingli referred to the perpetual virginity of Mary. No where in 21st century Protestantism do we see sentiments like these expressed…no, instead they are rejected with vigor.

And let’s not even go into the Reformers positions’ on contraception. Bubbles might being to burst.
 
-]/-]

As soon as a coin in the coffer rings / the soul from purgatory springs." Tetzel

http://www.ianpaisley.org/images/indul2.jpg
This is just what came to my mind when I read the question “What changed in 500 years?”

I’m sure someone else can explain the theology better than I can, but basically – aside from the abuse and greed which has already been discussed – the statement “As soon as a coin in the coffer rings / the soul from purgatory springs” reflects a theology which we today know to be false, but which at that time was still an “open question”. Nowadays we know that the Pope can’t just decide to free all the souls in purgatory (a question that Martin Luther brought up, btw).
-]/-]Please help me understand. Are you saying Tetzel was working against the authority of the Catholic Church?
My understanding is the Tetzel more or less had the Pope on his side.
-]/-]In regards to the Roman Catholic Church, is celibacy an option for a Roman Catholic Priest or nun? Are you saying Eastern Orthodox Priests can marry?
I believe that a nun is celibate by definition (just as a monk is celibate by definition).
 
I’m sure someone else can explain the theology better than I can, but basically – aside from the abuse and greed which has already been discussed – the statement “As soon as a coin in the coffer rings / the soul from purgatory springs” reflects a theology which we today know to be false, but which at that time was still an “open question”.
Do you have a reference for that being an open question? The idea of indulgences was in place long before the times of the Reformation, and I can hardly believe any orthodox theologians promoting their sale as a “what if?”
My understanding is the Tetzel more or less had the Pope on his side.
Again, the Pope’s alleged support is immaterial (although we can discuss it if you’d like!). Pope’s have the charism of infallibility when defining issues of faith and morals for the universal Church - they do not have the charism of impeccability.
 
Time to go. This thread is also intended for Protestants too. If the Church of Rome has not basically changed in doctrine, what is the difference between the original Protestant Reformers and 21st century Protestants.
To answer your own question…you have but to look around you or surf the net and ask “which Protestant denomination’s theology contains the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth”, and sit back and watch the firestorm… Much has changed in the last 500 years where Protestants are concerned. How many different denominations are there? How many agree on anything?
Why should I have an ecumenical agenda if essential doctrines have not changed in 500 years? Are 21st century unfaithful in the light of Jude 3? Are 21st century Protesants naive and ignorant about the essential reasons of the Protestant Reformation?
My friend, what I am about to say is said with all possible love and charity… sincerely so… I believe that 21st Century Protestants are for the most part almost completely naive and ignorant about who and what the Reformers were, and why they did what they did. They are also equally naive and ignorant as to the essential beliefs of the Reformers…on many levels. I will say here, that the true exceptions to my statement are the majority of Lutherans…who do know.

Modern Protestants have taken Scriptures, modified them and twisted them about…ad nauseum. There are so many agendas and purposes…that they are nearly uncountable. Many of them are false and disingenuous. I do know that there are those Protestants that are good Christians…and have a right mind and spirit, but there are those that do not.

In so far as “Jude 3”… I think it would be better said that they have probably never read “The Epistle of St. Jude” at all, and are ignorant of it in its entirety.

Peace!
 
The Protestant Reformation was based on essential doctrinal issues. It is my understanding that nothing has changed doctrinally in the last 500 years in regards to the Protestant Reformation.
The Reformed Protestants fragmented in a multitude of exclusionary beliefs even in the reformers lifetimes. So five centuries later they would probably be barely recognizable by their founders. Would Luther agree with the Lutheran church on ordination of women and on the blessing of homosexual unions? Would Zwingli agree with Baptists on the baptism of infants?

The Catholic Church on the other hand still teaches what the Apostles taught, now as 2000 years ago.

:blessyou:
 
Do you have a reference for that being an open question? The idea of indulgences was in place long before the times of the Reformation, and I can hardly believe any orthodox theologians promoting their sale as a “what if?”
The “open question” I was referring to has to do with how indulgences are applied to the souls in purgatory. That’s why I said “Nowadays we know that the Pope can’t just decide to free all the souls in purgatory (a question that Martin Luther brought up, btw).”
Again, the Pope’s alleged support is immaterial (although we can discuss it if you’d like!). Pope’s have the charism of infallibility when defining issues of faith and morals for the universal Church - they do not have the charism of impeccability.
I don’t know what you are responding to. As far as I can recall, no one but you has mentioned “impeccability”. (Although, since you brought it up, certainly I agree with you that the Pope is not impeccable.)
 
I don’t know what you are responding to. As far as I can recall, no one but you has mentioned “impeccability”. (Although, since you brought it up, certainly I agree with you that the Pope is not impeccable.)
I was responding to your line “My understanding is the Tetzel more or less had the Pope on his side.” I know you didn’t mean it this way, but many Protestants think that a Pope’s private approval of something that turns out to be wrong means that Infallibility has to be wrong as well. Sorry if there was any confusion, but I think it’s an important distinction.
 
With regards to the issue of “selling of indulgences”…here is some pertinent information:

From here…about 2/3rds of the way down the page:

newadvent.org/library/almanac_thisrock94.htm

**One of the causes of the Reformation was the selling of indulgences. Does the Catholic Church still sell them?

That’s like asking, “Have you stopped beating your wife?” The Catholic Church does not now or has it ever approved the sale of indulgences. This is to be distinguished from the undeniable fact that individual Catholics (perhaps the best known of them being the German Dominican Johann Tetzel [1465-1519]) did sell indulgences–but in doing so they acted contrary to explicit Church regulations. This practice is utterly opposed to the Catholic Church’s teaching on indulgences, and it cannot be regarded as a teaching or practice of the Church.

In the sixteenth century, when the abuse of indulgences was at its height, Cardinal Cajetan (Tommaso de Vio, 1469-1534) wrote about the problem: “Preachers act in the name of the Church so long as they teach the doctrines of Christ and the Church; but if they teach, guided by their own minds and arbitrariness of will, things of which they are ignorant, they cannot pass as representatives of the Church; it need not be wondered that they go astray.”

The Council of Trent (1545-1564) issued a decree that gave Church teaching on indulgences and that provided stringent guidelines to eliminate abuses:
Code:
Since the power of granting indulgences was conferred by Christ on the Church (cf. Matt. 16:19, 18:18, John 20:23), and she has even in the earliest times made use of that power divinely given to her, the holy council teaches and commands that the use of indulgences, most salutary to the Christian people and approved by the authority of the holy councils, is to be retained in the Church, and it condemns with anathema those who assert that they are useless or deny that there is in the Church the power of granting them.

In granting them, however, it desires that in accordance with the ancient and approved custom in the Church moderation be observed, lest by too great facility ecclesiastical discipline be weakened. But desiring that the abuses which have become connected with them, and by any reason of which this excellent name of indulgences be blasphemed by the heretics, be amended and corrected, it ordains in a general way by the present decree that all evil traffic in them, which has been a most prolific source of abuses among the Christian people, be absolutely abolished. Other abuses, however, of this kind which have sprung from superstition, ignorance, irreverence, or from whatever other sources, since by reason of the manifold corruptions in places and provinces where they are committed, they cannot conveniently be prohibited individually, it commands all bishops diligently to make note of, each in his own church, and report them to the next provincial synod" (Sess. 25, Decree on Indulgences).
In 1967 Pope Paul VI reiterated Catholic teaching on indulgences and added new reforms in his apostolic constitution Indulgentarium Doctrina (cf. Vatican II: The Conciliar and Post-Conciliar Documents, ed. Austin Flannery, O.P. [Northport, New York: Costello, 1980], 62-79).**

That’s it in a nutshell…😉
 
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