Manny, you haven’t proven anything by quoting these verses. The woman clothed in Heaven with the sun. You assume the woman is Mary, but Scripture never says that it is. Her name is never mentioned beyond the book of Acts, now refute that.
Like I said in another thread. The conclusion that lead me to believe that Mary is the woman in Revelation 12:1-5 is because the male child whom she gave birth too will rule all nations with an iron rod. This child was taken up to heaven and sat on the throne. This sounds very much like the Ascension of Jesus Christ.
The only individual woman who gave birth to Jesus, is Mary. Unless you can disprove that the male child is not Jesus, then there woman isn’t Mary. However, many Biblical scholars identify the male-child is Jesus.
Secondly, Luke 1:28 doesn’t read “Hail Mary full of grace” in my Bible. It reads, “to whom God has found favour”. Next, Mary’s sinless conception is explained by the Catholic chuch by saying that God applied the grace in advance and he didn’t allow her to sin but where is the proof??? Scripture NEVER says any of this. It is alot of mental acrobatics and very little substance and truth. Lastly, Mary DID say in Scripture that she rejoices in God her Savior. By saying this implies that she indeed sinned and needed a the Savior as we all have.
Luke 1:28 in Latin Vulgate written in 382 AD states full of grace.
Et ingressus angelus ad eam dixit have **gratia plena Dominus **tecum benedicta tu in mulieribus.
The original Greek states kecharitomene. Hail, highly favored is also correct.
Let me quote this.
So, here’s what some modern, English-speaking scholars tell us “Kecharitomene” denotes, based purely on the definition of the word and its grammatical usage:
" ‘Highly favoured’ (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians. 1:6, . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means ‘full of grace which thou hast received’; wrong, if it means ‘full of grace which thou hast to bestow’ " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)
“It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace.”
Scripture DOES support this. It also says that ALL have fallen short of the grace of God. Not all minus Mary. Its one thing to speak on things that Scriture does not address but it is quite another t declare doctrine that is contrary to Scripture
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The verse is true.
I know NCC prove Mary was sinner, some refer to Paul’s teaching in Romans that “all have sinned and fall short of God’s glory.” (Rom 3:23). But this verse simply means that all people, including Mary, are subject to original sin. Mary was spared from original sin by the direction intervention of God through the merits of Christ. In addition, while Paul writes, “all have sinned,” he does not mean all commit sin. Some are incapable of sin; for example, infants, the mentally retarded, the severely senile cannot sin. Jesus must also be an exception to this rule, and is an Mary as well.
In his letter to the Corinthians, Paul says, “For as in Adam all die, so also Christ shall be made alive” (1 Cor 15:22). The word for all (in Greek, pantes), which is the same word use for “all” in Romans 3:23, does not necessarily mean “every single one.” Not all died (Enoch and Elijah were bodily assumed into heaven) and not all shall live (because Jesus said that some people will choose hell). Elsewhere in his letter to the Romans, Paul says, “So death to all men because all men sinned.” (Roman 5:12). Once again, this proves that “all” does not mean “everyone” because death does not spread to Enoch and Elijah. Paul also say to the Romans, “For as by one man’s sin disobedience many were made sinners, so by one man’s obedience many will be made righteous.” In this verse, Paul says, “many” (in Greek, pollos) and not “all” (pantes), which proves that when Paul says, “all,” he really means “many.”
How about the term “None is righteous no, not one.” The basis of Paul’s statement is Psalm 14, which does not teach that all are sinners, but the righteous continue to seek God. Similiar, in Psalm 53, the phrase, “there is none that does good,” expressly to those who have fallen away from God. Those who remain faithful do good.
Don’t you in another post (thread?) talk about how similar the Anglican Church is to the Catholic Church?