J
JRKH
Guest
I’m curious as to what the basic criteria was for inclusion in theNT of the Bible.
Basically I am curious as to why some of the early Church father’s writings such as Clement or Ignatius were not included since we hold them in very high regard in the understanding and development of doctrine.
Our Protestant Bretheren often make a large point of the fact that this-or- that teaching is not expressly shown in the Bible, and dismiss writings of the Fathers as “not inspired”. So this is another reason for my asking this question.
I’m sure this has been written about but quite frankly, in my current circumstances it is very difficult for me to do much reading. That is why I rely so much on your good people here at CAF.
So - Can anyone enlighten me?
Peace
James
Basically I am curious as to why some of the early Church father’s writings such as Clement or Ignatius were not included since we hold them in very high regard in the understanding and development of doctrine.
Our Protestant Bretheren often make a large point of the fact that this-or- that teaching is not expressly shown in the Bible, and dismiss writings of the Fathers as “not inspired”. So this is another reason for my asking this question.
I’m sure this has been written about but quite frankly, in my current circumstances it is very difficult for me to do much reading. That is why I rely so much on your good people here at CAF.
So - Can anyone enlighten me?
Peace
James