What do non-Catholic Christians believe about sin forgiveness?

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Dear friend in Christ,

What do you believe about God’s WILL for sin forgiveness?

Blessings

Partick
 
PJM said:
Dear friend in Christ,

What do you believe about God’s WILL for sin forgiveness?

Blessings

Partick
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“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.”

“**If **we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.”

Yes, we have to confess our sins. That said, we are only capable of confessing with the help of the Holy Spirit.
 
JonNC said:
“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.”

“**If **we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.”

Yes, we have to confess our sins. That said, we are only capable of confessing with the help of the Holy Spirit.
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Hope you don’t mind if I borrow this, but you took the words right out of my mouth.
 
Jonah cried out to God when he was in the belly of the fish; God responded by having the fish vomit him out. That’s what the Lord would have us do, I believe. Return to Him with fasting and weeping, as the book of Joel says. There are all sorts of stories in the Scriptures of people crying out to God.
 
drac16 said:
Jonah cried out to God when he was in the belly of the fish; God responded by having the fish vomit him out. That’s what the Lord would have us do, I believe. Return to Him with fasting and weeping, as the book of Joel says. There are all sorts of stories in the Scriptures of people crying out to God.
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That really has more to do with penitence (contrition as we Catholics call it) but what about what JonNC quoted from the New Testament?
“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.”
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"**If **
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we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness."And then there’s the following from my own blog article.
** Catholic Confession **

In my opinion the passages are clear as in this case.

John 20:21-23 is so important.
"21 He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you. 22 When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. 23 Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained."

My thinking is that if our Lord had not intended to make the Sacrament of Reconciliation a means of grace unto salvation, then why in the world would He have made this statement and given both this power and command to the presbyters of His church?

James 5:16 & 1st John 1:9 also offer us more insight into this doctrine.

***James 5: 14 Is any man sick among you? Let him bring in the priests of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer of faith shall save the sick man: and the Lord shall raise him up: and if he be in sins, they shall be forgiven him. 16 Confess therefore your sins one to another: and pray one for another, that you may be saved. For the continual prayer of a just man availeth much.

1st John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all iniquity.***

All these passages expressly speak of confession of sins and so I have to ask, then just how will those outside the Catholic Church explain the obvious link between these passages.

Here is a further outline for study on this sacrament courtesy of John Martignoni and his Bible Christian Society
Confession
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A. Confess your sins to men
~ Leviticus 5:5-6 (“All scripture…”: 2 Tim 3:16)
(Law is a shadow: Hebrews 10:1)
~ 1 John 1:9
~ James 5:16
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B. Can men forgive sins?
~ Only God has the power to forgive sins but He exercises this power through men.
~ Mark 2:7
~ Matthew 9:1-8
When the crowds saw it, they were afraid , and the glorified God, who had given such authority to men.
  • Matthew 9:8
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To me, the scriptures are clear, and I can’t help but praise and thank God for His wisdom and mercy that (knowing the weaknesses of mankind) equipped His church with the means to help His children overcome our weaknesses and sins.
 
JonNC said:
“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.”

“**If **we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.”

Yes, we have to confess our sins. That said, we are only capable of confessing with the help of the Holy Spirit.
Click to expand...
While NOT disagreeing, why then is John :20:19-23 in the bible?

GBY
Patrick
 
drac16 said:
Jonah cried out to God when he was in the belly of the fish; God responded by having the fish vomit him out. That’s what the Lord would have us do, I believe. Return to Him with fasting and weeping, as the book of Joel says. There are all sorts of stories in the Scriptures of people crying out to God.
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OK:)

And what are these teachings doing in the bible? [NOT disagreeing with you]

1 Jn 1:8-9
1 Jn 5: 16-17
John 20:19-23

GBY
 
Church_Militant said:
That really has more to do with penitence (contrition as we Catholics call it) but what about what JonNC quoted from the New Testament?And then there’s the following from my own blog article.
** Catholic Confession **

In my opinion the passages are clear as in this case.

John 20:21-23 is so important.
"21 He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you. 22 When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. 23 Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained."

My thinking is that if our Lord had not intended to make the Sacrament of Reconciliation a means of grace unto salvation, then why in the world would He have made this statement and given both this power and command to the presbyters of His church?

James 5:16 & 1st John 1:9 also offer us more insight into this doctrine.

***James 5: 14 Is any man sick among you? Let him bring in the priests of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer of faith shall save the sick man: and the Lord shall raise him up: and if he be in sins, they shall be forgiven him. 16 Confess therefore your sins one to another: and pray one for another, that you may be saved. For the continual prayer of a just man availeth much.

1st John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all iniquity.***

All these passages expressly speak of confession of sins and so I have to ask, then just how will those outside the Catholic Church explain the obvious link between these passages.

Here is a further outline for study on this sacrament courtesy of John Martignoni and his Bible Christian Society

To me, the scriptures are clear, and I can’t help but praise and thank God for His wisdom and mercy that (knowing the weaknesses of mankind) equipped His church with the means to help His children overcome our weaknesses and sins.
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GREAT POST:thumbsup:

Thanks, GBY and WELCOME HOME!
 
PJM said:
While NOT disagreeing, why then is John :20:19-23 in the bible?

GBY
Patrick
Click to expand...
Because it is there that Christ establishes the Church as the means by which He makes grace available in confession and the granting of absolution.
They go hand in hand

Jon
 
Church_Militant said:
That really has more to do with penitence (contrition as we Catholics call it) but what about what JonNC quoted from the New Testament?And then there’s the following from my own blog article.
** Catholic Confession **

In my opinion the passages are clear as in this case.

John 20:21-23 is so important.
"21 He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you. 22 When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. 23 Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained."

My thinking is that if our Lord had not intended to make the Sacrament of Reconciliation a means of grace unto salvation, then why in the world would He have made this statement and given both this power and command to the presbyters of His church?

James 5:16 & 1st John 1:9 also offer us more insight into this doctrine.

***James 5: 14 Is any man sick among you? Let him bring in the priests of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer of faith shall save the sick man: and the Lord shall raise him up: and if he be in sins, they shall be forgiven him. 16 Confess therefore your sins one to another: and pray one for another, that you may be saved. For the continual prayer of a just man availeth much.

1st John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all iniquity.***

All these passages expressly speak of confession of sins and so I have to ask, then just how will those outside the Catholic Church explain the obvious link between these passages.

Here is a further outline for study on this sacrament courtesy of John Martignoni and his Bible Christian Society

To me, the scriptures are clear, and I can’t help but praise and thank God for His wisdom and mercy that (knowing the weaknesses of mankind) equipped His church with the means to help His children overcome our weaknesses and sins.
Click to expand...
Well done thanks:thumbsup:
 
Church_Militant said:
That really has more to do with penitence (contrition as we Catholics call it) but what about what JonNC quoted from the New Testament?And then there’s the following from my own blog article.
** Catholic Confession **

In my opinion the passages are clear as in this case.

John 20:21-23 is so important.
"21 He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you. 22 When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. 23 Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained."

My thinking is that if our Lord had not intended to make the Sacrament of Reconciliation a means of grace unto salvation, then why in the world would He have made this statement and given both this power and command to the presbyters of His church?

James 5:16 & 1st John 1:9 also offer us more insight into this doctrine.

***James 5: 14 Is any man sick among you? Let him bring in the priests of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord. 15 And the prayer of faith shall save the sick man: and the Lord shall raise him up: and if he be in sins, they shall be forgiven him. 16 Confess therefore your sins one to another: and pray one for another, that you may be saved. For the continual prayer of a just man availeth much.

1st John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all iniquity.***

All these passages expressly speak of confession of sins and so I have to ask, then just how will those outside the Catholic Church explain the obvious link between these passages.

Here is a further outline for study on this sacrament courtesy of John Martignoni and his Bible Christian Society

To me, the scriptures are clear, and I can’t help but praise and thank God for His wisdom and mercy that (knowing the weaknesses of mankind) equipped His church with the means to help His children overcome our weaknesses and sins.
Click to expand...
I praise and thank God as well for his wisdom. Thanks for this excellent post.

Mary.
 
JonNC said:
Because it is there that Christ establishes the Church as the means by which He makes grace available in confession and the granting of absolution.
They go hand in hand

Jon
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AGREED,

But Jon are you suggesting that Sacramental Confession is availiable outside of the RCC’s and the Orthodox churches?

Continued Blessings

Patrick
 
PJM said:
AGREED,

But Jon are you suggesting that Sacramental Confession is availiable outside of the RCC’s and the Orthodox churches?

Continued Blessings

Patrick
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Of course, since I don’t believe that valid ordination is limited to those two communions, or even, necessarily, to apostolic succession ( though that certainly is the default process of the historic Church).
My current priest is ordained in succession. The Lutheran pastors I had were valid under presbyter ordination.

Jon
 
JonNC said:
Of course, since I don’t believe that valid ordination is limited to those two communions, or even, necessarily, to apostolic succession ( though that certainly is the default process of the historic Church).
My current priest is ordained in succession. The Lutheran pastors I had were valid under presbyter ordination.

Jon
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OK, but your on VERY shaky grounds in doing so my friend::o

Continued Blessings

Patrick
 
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