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Bill_Pick
Guest
Have you ever needed help understanding a Bible verse or passage?
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reteeks21
Guest
Of course
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Rightlydivide
Guest
No. Ask a silly question…
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Prodigal_Son1
Guest
Condescending?
Explain the Prostestant view of the following verse and how it applies.
Mat 18:18 Amen I say to you, whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever you shall loose upon earth, shall be loosed also in heaven.
God Bless,
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MarcoPolo
Guest
Yes, and we do well to study it, and read commentaries from the Church Fathers, theologians, Catechism, and hierarchy.
2 Peter 3:16 Some things in them are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, leading to their own destruction, as they do the rest of the Scriptures.
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Rightlydivide
Guest
There is never such thing as a Protestant view. One of the reasons I find the word overused. It depends greatly on a number of things. The legislative and judicial views are the most common. You could google them, I dont have a handy link for that topic. I would have a different view. I believe on a larger level it is referring excommunication or shunning(to use terms that I do not use but would seem familiar to you) and we apply that today. On a specific level, as a dispensationalist I could see that the two examples that apply to Peter and the apostles were for a given time. But, I think it has a larger application. I think in a sense we see the greatest example in Peter’s vision in Acts and then the decision of the Jerusalem council as a whole as well.Condescending?
Explain the Prostestant view of the following verse and how it applies.
Mat 18:18 Amen I say to you, whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever you shall loose upon earth, shall be loosed also in heaven.
God Bless,
J
jim1130
Guest
Yes. All the time. I am not familiar with language idioms and semantics peculiar to the region during a particular historical time frame, context in which a statement is made, political environment, etc. It is very easy for me to apply 20th-21st century reasoning and interpretation to something written 2,000 years ago and get the message completely wrong. I may think that the Beatitudes indicate levels of Heaven, but how do I know that my interpretation is accurate?
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Prodigal_Son1
Guest
Then you “think” it might be a granting of authority to St. Peter and the Apostles of the Church Christ built?
While we can take examples from the Bible, do you not see that Christ was addressing the Apostles directly in both writings where this verse is repeated by Jesus, and both times Christ was referencing the Church?
Would you also, think that the authority to forgive sins, with a promise those sins would be forgiven and sins retained would be retained, was more authority being granted to the Apostles, or applied to everyone?
Joh 20:21 He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you.
Joh 20:22 When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost.
Joh 20:23 Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them: and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained.
God Bless,
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Rightlydivide
Guest
This is going to go nowhere quick. I understand your perspective.
It boils down to so many things and I should apologize that I get bored having the same conversation.
I am not sure if this is when I start explaining my presuppostions about the church, the difference between Gentiles and Jews, the gospels, and so forth as a dispensationalist.
Let me try with what you stated. I do not believe that anything specifically given to an apostle, which by defintion must have seen Christ, applies to the church today.
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Bill_Pick
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SO ARE YOU SAYING YOU DO NOT BELIVE IN APOSTOLIC SUCCESSION
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Prodigal_Son1
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Forgive me if you’ve answered this in other threads on these forums, I have not seen them myself. It is not my intention to bore you with repetitive questions, it just where this point of the discussion has led me.
At this point, I ask if you would explain how you see the authority given to the Apostles was meant to be from Jesus’ perspective? Do you not believe he intended an authortiy passed on beyond the Apostles?
These are sincere questions. I have difficulty seeing Peter having a limited authority from Christ, for a couple of reasons, which can be summed up in the passage below. Christ had all power in heaven and in earth, which indicates where He confirmed His authority to command the Apostles, as well as grant them authority. Secondly, He said He would be with them/us, all days, even to the consummation of the world. In this sentence, He was addressing men He knew would die a fleshly death before the consummation of the world. I believe He was promising to be with the authority, through Apostolic succession in His Church, He setup even to the consummation of the world.
Mat 28:18 And Jesus coming, spoke to them, saying: All power is given to me in heaven and in earth.
Mat 28:19 Going therefore, teach ye all nations: baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.
Mat 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you. And behold I am with you all days, even to the consummation of the world.
Another thing I don’t really understand, is how people can believe God had the power to inspire His word to be written down, but lacked the power to be with His Church He created while He walked the earth with man. If you could share your thoughts on this, I’d appreciate it.
God Bless,
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Henning
Guest
Not too far back when reading the Bible I felt like the ‘natural man’ in this verse,
1 Corinthians 2:14 “But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he understand them, because they are spiritually discerned.”
Now as a new Christian although I still have questions about scripture, things to me seem to ‘fit together’ much better.
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NDfan
Guest
Prodigal it seems that no one answered your question. I’ll give an answer although I don’t contend that it is a Protestant answer. It will be just an explanation of what this verse actually means.Condescending?
Explain the Prostestant view of the following verse and how it applies.
Mat 18:18 Amen I say to you, whatsoever you shall bind upon earth, shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever you shall loose upon earth, shall be loosed also in heaven.
God Bless,
The power of binding and loosing was given to the Jewish Priest to have control over what constituted a violation of the law. The Priest could either bind someone to the law or loosen it.
Example: Someone finds a $50 bill at the gas station. They are not sure if it is stealing if they keep it so they go and ask the Jewish Priest. The Jewish Priest has the ability to either bind them to the law saying yes if you keep it is stealing, or loosening them and saying no it is not stealing you found it.
To take it a step further the Priest could say go to the gas station owner and let them know you found money in the parking lot and would like to get it back to the owner. The owner can have someone claiming the money is theirs contact you at a specified number. The Priest then states if someone doesn’t contact you within a few weeks then most likely they never will. If the Priest places a condition like that saying you can only keep the money under those circumstances, then any violation of that directive would be considered a violation of the law of stealing. Thus you would be binded to that. If you follow the directive of the Priest then you would be loosened from the law of stealing.
So when Christ confers this power to Peter and then the rest of HIS disciples, being Jewish they probably understood completely what HE was saying. Hope that helps.
PEACE
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